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Physics
ELECTRO MAGNETIC INDUCTION ( CHAPTER 6 )

1. Faraday’s laws of ELECTRO MAGNETIC This work done become mechanical energy. Due
INDUCTION to movement of magnet emf is induced in circuit
hence induced current is produced. This is
Faraday’s first law
electrical energy. This electrical energy
Statement: “ whenever there is change in dissipated as heat energy.
magnetic flux, emf is induced
Smillarly, when we move magnet away from coil
Amount of emf induced depend on rate at which connected to galvanometer, work is done by us.
the magnetic field changes. This work done induces emf, so induced current
is produced in coil in opposite direction. This
𝑑∅
𝑒= − induced current gives electrical energy and
𝑑𝑡
dissipated as heat energy.
2. lenz law
This gives proof of law of conservation of
The polarity of induced emf is such that it tends
energy.
to produce a current which opposes the change
in magnetic flux that produced it. According to law of conservation of energy –
energy neither be created nor be destroyed but
it convert from one form to another
Note: . Henry experiments and faraday’s
experiment study from NCERT book.

3. Explain lenz law proves law of conservation

of energy

When we insert magnet through coil connected

to galvanometer, current is induced. To move a
magnet through coil, work has to be done.
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4. MOTIONAL ELECTROMOTIVE uniform magnetic field B which is perpendicular

FORCE ( using Lenz law ) to the plane of this system. If the length RQ = x

and RS = l, the magnetic flux B enclosed by the

loop PQRS will be

∅𝐵 = 𝐵 𝐴 − − − (1)
According to Lenz law
𝑑∅
𝑒= − − − − (2)
𝑑𝑡
Substitute (2) in (1), we get
𝑑(𝐵𝐴)
𝑒= −
𝑑𝑡
𝑑𝐴
𝑒 = −𝐵 − − − (3)
Hint: 𝑑𝑡

𝑑∅ But area
𝑒= −
𝑑𝑡
𝐴 = 𝑙 𝑥 − − − (4)
∅=𝐵𝐴
Substitute (4) in (3), we get
𝐴=𝑙𝑥
𝑑(𝑙𝑥)
Basic Physics: 𝑒 = −𝐵
𝑑𝑡
𝑑𝑥
= −𝑣 𝑑𝑥
𝑑𝑡 𝑒 = −𝐵 𝑙 − − − (5)
𝑑𝑡

Let us consider a straight conductor moving in a dx

But we know that, v
uniform and time independent magnetic field. dt

Figure shows a rectangular conductor

Eqn (5) becomes
PQRS in which the conductor PQ is free to move.
The rod PQ is moved towards the left with a 𝑒 = −𝐵 𝑙 ( −𝑣 )
constant velocity v as shown in the figure.
𝑒=𝐵𝑙𝑣
Assume that there is no loss of energy due to
friction. PQRS forms a closed circuit enclosing an
area that changes as PQ moves. It is placed in a
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5. MOTIONAL ELECTROMOTIVE Substitute (3) in (4) , we get

FORCE ( using Lorentz force ) 𝐵𝑞𝑣𝑙

𝑒=
𝑞

It is also possible to explain the motional emf

𝑒=𝐵𝑞𝑣
expression ( e = B l v ) by invoking the Lorentz
force acting on the free charge carriers of Note :

conductor PQ.
In the case of a stationary conductor, the force
Consider any arbitrary charge q in the conductor
on its charges is given by
PQ. When the rod moves with speed v, the
F = q (E + v × B)
charge will also be moving with speed v in the
If v = 0, then F = qE .
magnetic field B. The Lorentz force on this
Thus, any force on the charge must arise from
charge is qvB in magnitude, and its direction is
the electric field term E alone. Therefore, to
towards Q. All charges experience the same
explain the existence of induced emf or
force, in magnitude and direction, irrespective
induced current, we must assume that a time-
of their position in the rod PQ.
varying magnetic field generates an electric
The work done in moving the charge from P to Q
field. However, we hasten to add that electric
is,
fields produced by static electric charges have
Workdone = force x displacement
properties different from those produced by
𝑊 = 𝐹 𝑙 − − − (1)
time-varying magnetic fields. In Chapter 4, we
But, Lorentz force is
learnt that charges in motion (current) can exert
𝐹 = 𝐵 𝑞 𝑣 sin 𝜃
force/torque on a stationary magnet.
Here  is the angle between B and v, = 90
Conversely, a bar magnet in motion (or more
𝐹 = 𝐵 𝑞 𝑣 sin 90
generally, a changing magnetic field) can exert
𝐹 = 𝐵 𝑞 𝑣 − − − (2)
a force on the stationary charge. This is the
Substitute (2) in (1), we get
fundamental significance of the Faraday’s
𝑊 = 𝐵 𝑞 𝑣 𝑙 − − − (3)
discovery. Electricity and magnetism are
Since emf is the work done per unit charge,
related.
𝑊
𝑒= − − − (4)
𝑞

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6. A metallic rod of 1 m length is rotated with a Hint:

frequency of’ ‘ rev/s, with one end hinged at d∅
e= −
the centre and the other end at the dt
circumference of a circular metallic ring of ∅=BA
radius’r ’ m, about an axis passing through the
θ r2
centre and perpendicular to the plane of the A=
2
ring (Fig). A constant and uniform magnetic
Basic Physics:
field of ‘B’ tesla, parallel to the axis is present
dθ
everywhere. What is the emf between the = ω
dt
centre and the metallic ring?
EXAMPLE 6.6
To calculate the emf, we can imagine a closed
loop OPQ in which point O and P are connected
with a resistor R and OQ is the rotating rod. The
potential difference across the resistor is then
equal to the induced emf and equals B × (rate of
change of area of loop). If  is the angle
between the rod and the radius of the circle at P
at time t, the area of the sector OPQ is given by
𝜃
𝐴= 𝜋 𝑟2
360

If  is in radians, then the above formula

becomes

𝜃
𝐴= 𝜋 𝑟2
2𝜋

𝜃 𝑟2
𝐴= − − − (1)
2

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According to Lenz aw 7. ENERGY CONSIDERATION: A

𝑑∅
QUANTITATIVE STUDY
𝑒= − − − − (2)
𝑑𝑡 (In Previous Section , we discussed qualitatively
that Lenz’s law is consistent with the law of
But we know that , magnetic flux conservation of energy. Now we shall explore
this aspect further with a concrete example.)
∅ = 𝐵 𝐴 − − − (3)
Hint:
Substitute (3) in (2), we get
𝑃=𝐹𝑣
𝑑(𝐵𝐴)
𝑒= − 𝐹=𝐵𝐼𝑙
𝑑𝑡
𝑒
𝑑𝐴 𝐼=
𝑒 = −𝐵 − − − (4) 𝑟
𝑑𝑡
𝑒=𝐵𝑙𝑣
Substitute (1) in (4), we get

𝑑 𝜃 𝑟2
𝑒 = −𝐵 ( )
𝑑𝑡 2 Let ‘r’ be the resistance of movable arm PQ of
the rectangular conductor shown in Fig.( in
𝐵 𝑟2 𝑑 𝜃
𝑒= − − − − (5) derivation number 4). We assume that the
2 𝑑𝑡
remaining arms QR, RS and SP have negligible
d
But we know that    angularvelocity resistances compared to r. Thus, the overall
dt
resistance of the rectangular loop is ‘r’ and this

Eqn (5) becomes, does not change as PQ is moved. The

current I in the loop is,
𝐵 𝑟2 𝑒
𝑒= − (– 𝜔) 𝐼 = − − − (1)
2 𝑟
But e = B l v --- (2)
𝐵 𝑟2 𝜔
𝑒=
2 Substitute (2) in (1), we get
𝐵𝑙𝑣
𝐼= − − − (3)
𝑟
On account of the presence of the magnetic
field, there will be a force on the arm PQ. This

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force I (l × B), is directed outwards in the Hint :

direction opposite to the velocity of the rod. The
𝑃𝐽 = 𝐼 2 𝑟
magnitude of this force is,
𝑒
𝐹 = 𝐵 𝐼 𝑙 − − − (4) 𝐼=
𝑟
Substitute ( 4 ) in (3), we get
𝑒=𝐵𝑙𝑣
𝐵𝑙𝑣
𝐹=𝐵 ( )𝑙
𝑟
𝐵2 𝑙 2 𝑣 But we know that from eqn (3)
𝐹= − − − (5)
𝑟
𝐵𝑙𝑣
𝐼= − − − (3)
𝑟
Note that this force arises due to drift velocity Substitute (3) in (8), we get
of charges (responsible for current) along the 𝐵𝑙𝑣 2
𝑃𝐽 = ( ) 𝑟
rod and the consequent Lorentz force acting on 𝑟
them. 𝐵2 𝑙 2 𝑣 2
𝑃𝐽 = ( )𝑟
𝑟2
Alternatively, the arm PQ is being pushed with a
𝐵2 𝑙 2 𝑣 2
constant speed v, the power required to do this 𝑃𝐽 = − − − (9)
𝑟
is,
𝑃 = 𝐹 𝑣 − − − (6)
which is identical to Eq. (7).
Substitute ( 5) in (6), we get
Thus, mechanical energy which was needed to
𝐵2 𝑙 2 𝑣
𝑃= ( )𝑣 move the arm PQ is converted into electrical
𝑟
energy (the induced emf) and then to thermal
𝐵2 𝑙 2 𝑣 2
𝑃= − − − (7) energy
𝑟

The agent that does this work is mechanical. 8. Relationship between the charge flow
Where does this through the circuit and the change in the
mechanical energy go? The answer is: it is magnetic flux.
dissipated as Joule heat, and we know that
is given by According to Faraday’s law of EMI,
𝑃𝐽 = 𝐼 2 𝑟 − − − (8) ∆ ∅
|𝑒| = − − − (1)
∆𝑡

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According to ohm’s law, contributes to the induced emf.

𝑒 = 𝑖 𝑅 − − − (2) Therefore, a term called flux linkage is
Where ‘R’ is resistance of conductor used which is equal to NΦB for a closely wound
Comparing (1) and (2)
coil and in such a case
∆∅
𝑖𝑅= − − − (3) 𝑁 ∅𝐵 𝛼 𝐼
∆𝑡
We know that,
∆𝑞 The constant of proportionality, in this relation,
𝑖= − − − (4)
∆𝑡 is called inductance.
Substitute (3)in (4), we get We shall see that inductance depends only on
∆𝑞 ∆∅ the geometry of the coil and intrinsic material
𝑅=
∆𝑡 ∆𝑡
properties.
∆ 𝑞 .𝑅 = ∆ ∅ 𝑁∅=𝐿𝐼
∆∅
∆𝑞 = − − − (5) Where, L = co efficient of self inductance.
𝑅

10. define one henry of self inductance

9. INDUCTANCE
We know that
An electric current can be induced in a coil by
flux change produced by another coil in its ∅ = 𝐿 𝐼 − − − (1)
vicinity or flux change produced by the same
According to lenz law
coil.
the flux through a coil is proportional to the 𝑑∅
𝑒= − − − − (2)
current. That is B  I 𝑑𝑡

Further, if the geometry of the coil does not vary Substitute (1) in (2), we get
with time then,
𝑑 (𝐿 𝐼)
𝑑 ∅𝐵 𝑑𝐼 𝑒= −
𝛼 𝑑𝑡
𝑑𝑡 𝑑𝑡
For a closely wound coil of N turns, the same 𝑑𝐼
𝑒 = −𝐿 − − − (3)
𝑑𝑡
magnetic flux is linked with all the turns. When

the flux ΦB through the coil changes, each turn

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−𝑒 𝜇0 𝑁 2 𝐼 𝐴
𝐿= 𝐿𝐼=
(𝑑 𝐼⁄𝑑 𝑡) 𝑙

In one second, one ampere of current flows 𝜇0 𝑁 2 𝐴

𝐿=
𝑙
through an inductor, produces an opposing emf
of one volt, then the co-efficient of self - If coil is wound on a frame of relative

inductance is one henry. permeability r , then the above equation

becomes
11. Self inductance
𝜇𝑟 𝜇0 𝑁 2 𝐴
We know that , magnetic flux 𝐿=
𝑙

∅ = 𝑁 𝐵 𝐴 cos 𝜃 − − − (1)

Here ‘ ’ is the angle between B & A = 0. [Link] one henry of Mutual inductance

Cos 0 = 1, so eqn (1) becomes We know that

∅ = 𝑁 𝐵 𝐴 − − − (2) ∅2 𝛼 𝐼1

But we know that, ∅2 = 𝑀12 𝐼1 − − − (1)

𝜇0 𝑁 𝐼 According to Lenz law,

𝐵= − − − (3)
𝑙
𝑑 ∅2
Substitute (3) in (1), we get, 𝑒2 = − − − − (2)
𝑑𝑡

𝜇0 𝑁 𝐼 Substitute (1) in (2), we get

∅=𝑁 ( )𝐴
𝑙
𝑑 (𝑀12 𝐼1 )
𝜇0 𝑁 2 𝐼 𝐴 𝑒2 = −
∅= − − − (4) 𝑑𝑡
𝑙
𝑑 𝐼1
We know that 𝑒2 = −𝑀12
𝑑𝑡

∅ = 𝐿 𝐼 − − − (5) −𝑒2
𝑀12 =
𝑑𝐼
( 1⁄𝑑 𝑡)
Compare (4) & (5), we get

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In one second, one ampere of current flows 𝜇0 𝑁1 𝐼1

𝐵1 = − − − (3)
𝑙
through primary coil, produces an opposing emf
of one volt in secondary coil, then the co- Substitute (3) in (1), we get,
efficient of mutual inductance is one henry.
𝜇0 𝑁1 𝐼1
∅2 = 𝑁2 ( ) 𝐴2
𝑙
13. Mutual inductance
𝜇0 𝑁1 𝑁2 𝐴2 𝐼1
∅2 = − − − (4)
𝑙

We know that

∅2 = 𝑀12 𝐼1 − − − (5)

Compare (4) & (5), we get

𝜇0 𝑁1 𝑁2 𝐴2 𝐼1
𝑀12 𝐼1 =
𝑙

𝜇0 𝑁1 𝑁2 𝐴2
𝑀12 =
𝑙

If coil is wound on a frame of relative

permeability r , then the above equation

We know that , magnetic flux becomes

∅2 = 𝑁2 𝐵1 𝐴2 cos 𝜃 𝜇𝑟 𝜇0 𝑁1 𝑁2 𝐴2
𝑀12 =
𝑙
Here ‘ ’ is the angle between B & A = 0.

Cos 0 = 1, so eqn (1) becomes

14. Energy stored in inductor
∅2 = 𝑁2 𝐵1 𝐴2 − − − (2)
We know that
But we know that,
Power = emf x current

𝑃 = |𝑒| 𝐼 − − − (1)

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But 𝐼2
𝑊=𝐿
2
𝑑𝐼
|𝑒| = 𝐿 − − − (2) 1
𝑑𝑡 𝑊= 𝐿 𝐼2
2
Substitute (2) in (1), we get
15. AC GENERATOR
𝑑𝐼
𝑃= 𝐿 𝐼 − − − (3)
𝑑𝑡
one method to induce an emf or current in a
But , loop is through a change in the loop’s
orientation or a change in its effective area.
𝑑𝑊
𝑃= − − − (4) As the coil rotates in a magnetic field B, the
𝑑𝑡
effective area of the loop (the face
Substitute (4) in (3), we get
perpendicular to the field) is A cos , where  is
𝑑𝑊 𝑑𝐼 the angle between A and B. This method of
=𝐿𝐼
𝑑𝑡 𝑑𝑡 producing a flux change is the principle of
𝑑𝑊=𝐿𝐼𝑑𝐼 operation of a simple ac generator. An ac
generator converts mechanical energy into
Integrating both side
electrical energy.
𝐼

∫𝑑 𝑊 = ∫𝐿 𝐼 𝑑 𝐼 The basic elements of an ac generator are

0 shown in Fig.. It consists of a coil mounted

𝐼 on a rotor shaft. The axis of rotation of the coil

𝑊 = 𝐿 ∫𝐼 𝑑 𝐼 is perpendicular to the direction of the magnetic
0
field. The coil (called armature) is mechanically
𝐼 rotated in the uniform magnetic field by some
𝐼1+1
𝑊=𝐿 [ ]
1+1 0 external means. The rotation of the coil causes
the magnetic flux through it to change, so an
2 𝐼
𝐼 emf is induced in the coil. The ends of the coil
𝑊=𝐿 [ ]
2 0
of slip rings and brushes.

𝐼 2 02
𝑊=𝐿 [ − ]
2 2
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𝑑∅
𝑒= − − − − (4)
𝑑𝑡

Substitute (3) in (4) , we get

𝑑
𝑒= − (𝑁 𝐵 𝐴 cos 𝜔𝑡)
𝑑𝑡

𝑑
𝑒 = −𝑁 𝐵 𝐴 (cos 𝜔𝑡)
𝑑𝑡

𝑒 = −𝑁 𝐵 𝐴 ( − 𝜔 sin 𝜔𝑡 )

𝑒 = 𝜔 𝑁 𝐵 𝐴 sin 𝜔𝑡 − − − (5)

Put NB A  E 0  maximumemf

Substituting above expression in eqn (5), we get

When the coil is rotated with a constant
angular speed ω, the angle  between the 𝑒 = 𝐸0 sin 𝜔𝑡 − − − (6)
magnetic field vector B and the area vector A of
the coil at any instant t is  = ωt (assuming
 = 0 at t = 0).
As a result, the effective area of the coil exposed
to the magnetic field lines
changes with time, and the flux at any time t is
∅ = 𝑁 𝐵 𝐴 cos 𝜃 − − − (1)

Note: The frequency of rotation is 50 Hz in India.

Put   t   ( 2)
In certain countries such as USA, it is 60 Hz.
Substitute (2) in (1), we get

16. Obtain the expression for the magnetic

∅ = 𝑁 𝐵 𝐴 cos 𝜔 𝑡 − − − (3)
energy stored in a solenoid in terms of
According to Lenz law magnetic field B, area A and length l of the
solenoid.

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We know that, magnetic energy is

𝜇0 𝐼2
1 𝐵2 = − − − (1)
𝑈 = 𝐿 𝐼 2 − − − (1) 2 𝑟2
2
Since the other co-axially placed coil has
But , a very small radius, B2 may be considered
constant over its cross-sectional area. Hence,
𝐵 = 𝜇0 𝑛 𝐼 − − − (2)
∅1 = 𝐵2 𝐴1 − − − (2)
Re-arranging (2) we get,
But Area =  r1 2    ( 3 )
𝐵
𝐼= − − − (3)
𝜇0 𝑛 Substitute (1 & (3)) in (2)

And we know that 𝜇0 𝐼2

∅1 = ( ) (𝜋 𝑟12 )
2 𝑟2
𝐿 = 𝜇0 𝑛2 𝐴 𝑙 − − − (4)
𝜇0 𝜋 𝑟12
∅1 = 𝐼 − − − (4)
Substituting (3) & (4) in (1) , we get 2 𝑟2 2

1 𝐵 2 But we know that

𝑈= (𝜇0 𝑛2 𝐴 𝑙) ( )
2 𝜇0 𝑛
∅1 = 𝑀12 𝐼2 − − − (5)
1 𝐵2
𝑈= (𝜇0 𝑛2 𝐴 𝑙) 2 2
2 𝜇0 𝑛 Comparing (4) & (5), we get

𝑈 1 𝐵2 𝜇0 𝜋 𝑟12
= . 𝑀12 =
𝐴𝑙 2 𝜇0 2 𝑟2

16. Example 6.9 Two concentric circular coils, 𝑀12 = 𝑀21

one of small radius r1 and the other of large
Note that we calculated M12 from an
radius r2, such that r1 << r2, are placed co-
approximate value of Φ1, assuming the
axially with centres coinciding. Obtain the
magnetic field B2 to be uniform over the area
mutual inductance of the arrangement.
 r12. However, we can accept this value
Let a current I2 flow through the outer
because r1 << r2.
circular coil. The field at the centre of the coil is

S. GURUSKANTHAN
Dept. of physics
98402 37057 EMI : Page 12
 ॐ श्रीराघवेन्द्राय नम:

SHRI RAGHAVENDRA INSTITUTE OF LEARNING

Old No: 33, New No: 24, 3 rd trust cross street, mandavelippakkam, Chennai – 28, cell:98402 37057

HOTS :
N
1. find the direction of induced current in the
following diagrams
M
K
L

Increasing current

M
K
L

Decreasing current

K
2. find the direction of induced current in the
N
following diagram

M
K
L

constant current

4. State End rule.

If current flowing through a coil, the , the end of

3. Find the direction of induced current in the the coil in which, the current is clockwise
loop KLMN, in the following diagrams corresponds to south pole, the end of the coil in
which, the current is anti-clockwise, corresponds
to north pole.
S. GURUSKANTHAN
Dept. of physics
98402 37057 EMI : Page 13
 ॐ श्रीराघवेन्द्राय नम:

SHRI RAGHAVENDRA INSTITUTE OF LEARNING

Old No: 33, New No: 24, 3 rd trust cross street, mandavelippakkam, Chennai – 28, cell:98402 37057

4. Find the direction of induced current in the

rectangular loop
5. What are eddy currents?

How are they produced?

v
How can we minimize the eddy currents?

Applications o f eddy currents.

6. Outcomes of Henry experiments and

faraday’s experiments.
Rectangular loop moving towards current
7. choose the following
carrying wire with velocity ‘v’
A magnet is falling freely through a metal ring.
Its acceleration will be _____

v (a) a < g (b) a > g (c) a = g (d) data

insufficient

8. State Fleming’s right hand rule

In our right hand, fore finger, middle finger and

Rectangular loop is moving away from current
thumb are mutually perpendicular to each
carrying wire with velocity ‘v’
other. If fore finger indicates direction of
magnetic field, thumb indicates, the direction of
motion of conductor, then the middle finger
indicates the direction of induced current.

*****

Rectangular loop is at
rest , near the current carrying wire
S. GURUSKANTHAN
Dept. of physics
98402 37057 EMI : Page 14