UNIT 1: ENVIRONMENT

PASSAGE 1
Read the passages and choose the best answer for each question
Although noise, commonly defined as unwanted sound, is a widely recognized form of
pollution, it is very difficult to measure because the discomfort experienced by different
individuals is highly subjective and, therefore, variable. Exposure to lower levels of noise
may be slightly irritating, whereas exposure to higher levels may actually cause hearing
loss. Particularly in congested urban areas, the noise produced as a by-product of our
advancing technology causes physical and psychological harm, and distracts from the
quality of life for those who are exposed to it.
Unlike the eyes, which can be covered by eyelids against strong light, the ear has no lid,
and is, therefore, always open and vulnerable; noise penetrates without protection.
Noise causes effects that the hearer cannot control and to which the body never becomes
accustomed. Loud noises instinctively signal danger to any organism with a hearing
mechanism, including human beings. In response, heartbeat and respiration accelerate,
blood vessels constrict, the skin pales, and muscles tense. In fact, there is a general
increase in functioning brought about by the flow of adrenaline released in response to
fear, and some of these responses persist even longer than the noise, occasionally as long
as thirty minutes after the sound has ceased.
Because noise is unavoidable in a complex, industrial society, we are constantly
responding in a same way that we would response to danger. Recently, researchers have
concluded that noise and our response may be much more than an annoyance. It may be a
serious threat to physical and psychological health and well-being, causing damage not
only to the ear and brain but also to the heart and stomach. We have long known that
hearing loss is America’s number one nonfatal health problem, but now we are learning
that some of us with heart disease and ulcers may be victims of health as well. Fetuses
exposed to noise tend to be overactive, they cry easily, and they are more sensitive to
gastrointestinal problems after birth. In addition, the psychic effect of noise is very
important. Nervousness, irritability, tension, and anxiety increase, affecting the quality of
rest during sleep, and the efficiency of activities during walking hours, as well as the way
that we interact with each other.
Question 1. Which of the following is the author’s main point?
A. Noise may pose a serious threat to our physical and psychological health.
B. Loud noises signal danger.
C. Hearing loss is America’s number one nonfatal health problem.
D. The ear is not like the eye.
Question 2. According to the passage, what is noise?
A. Unwanted sound B. A by-product of technology
C. Physical and psychological harm D. Congestion
Question 3. Why is noise difficult to measure?
 A. It causes hearing loss.
B. All people do not respond to it in the same way.
C. It is unwanted.
D. People become accustomed to it.
Question 4. The word congested in paragraph 1 could best be replaced by
A. hazardous B. polluted C. crowded D. rushed

Question 5. The word “by-product” as used in the passage is closest in meaning to

A. a necessary product B. a product that is always by your side
C. an unexpected result D. something that is produced by environmental pollution
Question 6. It can be inferred from the passage that the eye
A. responds to fear B. enjoys greater protection than the ear
C. increases functions D. is damaged by noise
Question 7. According to the passage, people respond to loud noise in the same way that they
respond to
A. annoyance B. disease C. damage D. danger
Question 8. The word accelerate in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to
A. decrease B. alterC. increase D. release
Question 9. The word it in the first paragraph refers to
A. the noise B. the quality of life C. advancing technology D. a by-product
Question 10. With which of the following statements would the author most probably agree?
A. Noise is sometimes annoying.
B. Noise is America’s number one problem.
C. Noise is an unavoidable problem in an industrial society.
D. Noise is a complex problem.

PASSAGE 2
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the best answer to each of the following questions.
The response of most animals when suddenly faced with predator is to flee. Natural selection
has acted in a variety of ways in different species to enhance the efficacy of the behaviors,
known as “flight behaviors” or escape behaviors that are used by prey in fleeing predators.
Perhaps the most direct adaptation is enhanced flight speed and agility.
Adaptations for speed, however, are likely to require sacrifices biter attributes, so we might
expect only some species to adopt a simple fast flight strategy. Another way of enhancing the
effectiveness of flight is to move in an erratic and unpredictable way. Many species, like
 ptarmigans, snipes, and various antelopes and gazelles, flee from predators in a characteristic
zigzag fashion. Rapid unexpected changes in flight direction make it difficult for a predator to
track prey. In some species, like the European hare, erratic zigzag flight might be more
effective in the presence of predators that are faster than they are and straight flight more
effective against predators that are slower. One observation that supports this suggestion is
the recorded tendency for slow-flying black-headed show frequent changes in flight direction
when they spot a peregrine falcon (peregrines are adept at capturing flying birds).
A quite different way of enhancing escape by flight is to use so-called “flash” behavior. Here,
the alarmedprey flees for a short distance and then “freezes.” Some predators are unexcited
by immobile prey, and a startling flash of activity followed by immobility may confuse them.
“Flash” behavior is used in particularby frogs and orthopteran insects which make
conspicuous jumps and then sit immobile. In some species, “flash” behavior is enhanced by
the display of bright body markings. Good examples of insects with the colorful markings are
the red and yellow under-wing moths. At rest, both species are a cryptic brown color. When
they fly, however, brightly colored hind wings are exposed, which render the moths highly
conspicuous. Similarly, some frogs and lizards have brightly colored patches or frills that may
serve a “flash” function when they move quickly. Some species even appear to possess
“flash” sounds. The loud buzzing and clicking noises made by some grasshoppers when they
jump may serve to emphasize the movement.
Question 1. The word “enhance” is closest in meaning to .
A. encourage B. resist C. increase D. reveal
Question 2. The description of the prey’s movement as “zigzag” suggests that the movement is
.
A. reliable B. fast C. constant D. unpredictable
Question 3. It can be inferred from the passage that the European hare .

A. is faster than most of its predators B. is capable of two kinds of flight C. is more
likely to escape using straight flight D. is preyed upon by gulls and falcons.
Question 4. The behavior of black-beaded gulls is most comparable to that of .
A. gazelles B. European hares C. peregrine falcons D. frogs
Question 5. It can be inferred that black-beaded gulls change direction when they spot a
peregrine falcon for which of the following reasons?
A. The falcons are faster than the gulls. B. The gulls want to capture the falcons.
C. The falcons are unpredictable. D. The gulls depend on the falcons for protection.

Question 6. The word “alarmed” is closest in meaning to .

A. moving B. selected C. frightened D. exhausted
Question 7. All of the following are mentioned as characteristics of “flash” behavior EXCEPT
.
A. brief conspicuous activity B. immobility
C. bright body markings D. aggressive fighting
Question 8. The phrase “in particular” is closest in meaning to .
A. especially B. with difficulty C. expertly D. frequently
Question 9. The hind wings of red and yellow under-wing moths function in a way that is most
similar to
.
A. the hind wings of peregrine falcons. B. The zigzag flight of European hares.
C. The colored patches on frogs. D. The clicking of grasshoppers.
Question 10. Why does the author mention “grasshopper” in the last line?
A. To contrast animals that “flash” with animals that “freeze”
B. As an example of an animal whose “flash” behavior is a sound
C. To compare the jumping behavior of insects and reptiles
D. As an example of a predator that moths escape by using “flash” behavior.
PASSAGE 3
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 1 to 8.
For many people, mushroom are strange, colorless, incomprehensible plants that should
be avoided. Quaint tales and scary stories surround mushrooms become some are extremely
poisonous. In reality, however, mushrooms are fungi that are simple plants without developed
roots, leaves, stems, flowers, or seeds. They grow in wetlands, grassy meadows, and woods.
Certain types of mushrooms are delicious and are included as ingredients in many recipes and
trendy snacks. For example, morels are considered one of the choicest foods, and truffles,
related to morels, are highly prized in Europe. Their shape is tube- like, and they remain
entirely underground, a foot or more below the surface. In the old days, dogs and pigs were
specially trained to hunt them by scent.
Mushrooms stand out among other plants because they have no chlorophyll and cannot
generate their own nourishment. The part of the fungus that rises above the ground is the
fruiting body, and the vegetative part that produces growth is hidden under the ground. It can
be usually dug up in the form of dense, white tangled filaments, which, depending on the food
supply and moisture, can live for hundreds of years. In fact, mushrooms, as well as the rest of
the fungus genus species, are one of the few remaining simple plants that are believed to be
among the oldest living organisms. When their environment is not conductive to growth,
filaments stop proliferating and can lie dormant for dozens of years.
Although mushrooms are rich in flavor and texture, they have little food value. Picking
mushrooms requires a thorough knowledge of environments where they are most likely to
grow and an ability to tell between edible and poisonous plants. Most mushrooms thrive in
temperatures from 680 to 860 (F) with plenty of moisture, and nearly complete darkness
produces the best crop. The entire mushroom should be picked, the stem, the cap, and
whatever part that is underground. Brightly colored mushroom caps usually indicate that the
plant is not fit for consumption, and the more the mushroom attracts attention, the more
poisonous it is. Mushrooms with beautiful red or orange spotted caps that grow under large
trees after a good rain are particularly poisonous. If milky or white juices seep from a break in
the body of plant, chances are it should not be picked. Old mushrooms with brown caps are
also not very safe.
Question 1. The word “quaint” is closest in meaning to
A. convoluted B. fanciful C. irritating D. perfunctory
Question 2. The word “trendy” is closest meaning to
A. tender B. experimental C. fashionable D. trusted
Question 3. With which of the following statements is the author of the passage most likely to
agree?
A. In the old days, when the food was scarce, people chose mushrooms as food.
B. Mushrooms should be treated as all other plants.
C. Because they are poisonous, people should stay away from mushrooms.
D. Mushrooms have different forms of roots, stems, and leaves.
Question 4. It can be inferred from the passage that mushrooms multiply mostly by means of

A. moisture B. fruiting bodies C. nourishment D. root systems

Question 5. The word “Their” refers to
A. morels B. foods C. truffles D. morels and truffles

Question 6. The word “tell” is closest in meaning to

A. narrate B. distinguish C. say D. see
Question 7. What does the author of the passage imply about brightly colored mushrooms?
A. They are beautiful. B. They should not be eaten.
C. They attract attention. D. They should be destroyed.
Question 8. The author of the passage implies that mushrooms
A. have been known since ancient times B. are a relatively recent form of plants
C. cannot survive without a good environment D. have been carefully analyzed

PASSAGE 4
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions
Butterflies are among the most extensively studied insects - an estimated 90 percent of the
world's species have scientific names. As a consequence, they are perhaps the best group of
insects for examining patterns of terrestrial biotic diversity and distribution. Butterflies also
have a favorable image with the general public. Hence, they are an excellent group for
communicating information on science and conservation issues such as diversity.
Perhaps the aspect of butterfly diversity that has received the most attention over the past
century is the striking difference in species richness between tropical and temperate regions.
 For example, in 1875 one biologist pointed out the diversity of butterflies in the Amazon
when he mentioned that about 700 species were found within an hour's walk, whereas the total
number found on the British islands did not exceed 66, and the whole of Europe supported
only 321. This early comparison of tropical and temperate butterfly richness has been well
confirmed.
A general theory of diversity would have to predict not only this difference between
temperate and tropical zones, but also patterns within each region, and how these patterns vary
among different animal and plant groups. However, for butterflies, variation of species
richness within temperate or tropical regions, rather man between them, is poorly understood.
Indeed, comparisons of numbers of species among the Amazon basin, tropical Asia, and
Africa are still mostly "personal communication" citations, even for vertebrates, In other
words, unlike comparison between temperate and tropical areas, these patterns are still in the
documentation phase.
In documenting geographical variation in butterfly diversity, some arbitrary, practical
decisions are made. Diversity, number of species, and species richness are used
synonymously; little is known about the evenness of butterfly distribution. The New World
butterflies make up the preponderance of examples because they are the most familiar species.
It is hoped that by focusing on them, the errors generated by imperfect and incomplete
taxonomy will be minimized.
Question 1. The word "consequence" in line 2 is closest in meaning to .
A. result B. explanation C. analysis D. requirement
Question 2. The word "striking" in line 7 is closest in meaning to .
A. physical B. confusing C. noticeable D. successful
Question 3. Butterflies are a good example for communicating information about conservation
issues because they .
A. are simple in structure B. are viewed positively by people
C. have been given scientific names D. are found mainly in temperate climates
Question 4. The word “exceed” in line 10 is closest in meaning to .
A. locate B. allow C. go beyond D. come close to
Question 5. Which of the following is NOT well understood by biologists?
A. European butterfly habitats
B. Differences in species richness between temperate and tropical regions
C. Differences in species richness within a temperate or a tropical region
D. Comparisons of behavior patterns of butterflies and certain animal groups

Question 6. All of the followings are mentioned as being important parts of a general theory
of diversity EXCEPT .
A. differences between temperate and tropical zones
B. patterns of distribution of species in each region
C. migration among temperate and tropical zones
 D. variation of patterns of distribution of species among different animals and plants
Question 7. Which aspect of butterflies does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Their physical characteristics B. Their adaptation to different habitats
C. Their names D. Their variety
Question 8. The author mentions tropical Asia in lines 16 - 17 as an example of a location
where .
A. butterfly behavior varies with climate
B. a general theory of butterfly diversity has not yet been firmly established
C. butterflies are affected by human populations
D. documenting plant species is more difficult than documenting butterfly species
Question 9. The word "generated" in line 24 is closest in meaning to .
A. requested B. caused C. assisted D. estimated

PASSAGE 5
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
In the twentieth century, people demand on unlimited energy to power their everyday lives. A
wide range of energy-run devices and modern conveniences are taken for granted, and
although it may seem that we will never be in danger of living without those conveniences, the
fact is that many supplies of energy are dwindling rapidly. Scientists are constantly searching
for new sources of power to keep modern society running. Whether future populations will
continue to enjoy the benefits of abundant energy will depend on the success of this research.
Coal, oil, and natural gas supply modern civilization with most of its power. However, not
only are supplies of these fuels limited, but they are a major source of pollution. If the energy
demands of the future are to be met without seriously harming the environment, existing
alternative energy sources must be improved or further explored and developed. These include
nuclear, water, solar, wind, and geothermal power, as well as energy from new, nonpolluting
types of fuels. Each of these alternatives, however, has advantages and disadvantages.
Nuclear power plants efficiently produce large amounts of electricity without polluting the
atmosphere; however, they are costly to build and maintain, and they pose the daunting
problem of what to do with nuclear wastes. Hydroelectric power is inexpensive and
environmentally safe, but impractical for communities located far from moving water.
Harnessing energy from tides and waves has similar drawbacks. Solar power holds great
promise for the future but methods of collecting and concentrating sunlight are as yet
inefficient, as are methods of harnessing wind power.
Every source of energy has its disadvantages. One way to minimize them is to use less energy.
Conservation efforts coupled with renewable energy resources, such as a combination of solar,
water, wind, and geothermal energy and alternative fuels, such as alcohol and hydrogen, will
ensure supplies of clean, affordable energy for humanity’s future.
Question 1. The passage mainly discusses .
A. the current situation of energy demands
 B. the way to use less energy
C. the difficulties in finding new sources of energy
D. the advantages and disadvantages of some sources of energy
Question 2. The word “dwindling” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to “ .”
A. rocketing B. declining C. doubling D. distributing
Question 3. According to the passage, which of the following is the limitation of natural gas?
A. It is difficult to be collected
B. It is expensive
C. It is polluted
D. It is inaccessible for people who live far away the cities
Question 4. What does the word “its” in paragraph 2 refer to?
A. modern civilization B. oil C. natural gas D. coal
Question 5. The word “drawbacks” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to “ .”

A. objections B. methods C. disabilities D. problems

Question 6. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true?
A. Just like coal, nuclear energy is a pollutant to the air.
B. It is hard for people away from the water to use hydroelectric power
C. Scientists are on their way to look for alternative sources of energy.
D. Wind power and solar power have the same problem.
Question 7. What can be inferred from the passage?
A. Scientists will not resume their search for new types of energy until they have found a
perfect one.
B. Using hydroelectric energy can be harmful to our atmosphere.
C. It is impossible for some groups of people to enjoy water energy.
D. The only way to decrease the disadvantages of sources of energy is to use them less.
Question 8. What does the word “they” in paragraph 3 refer to?
A. nuclear power plants
B. amounts of electricity
C. advantages and disadvantages
D. nuclear wastes
Question 9. What can be inferred about wind power?
A. Combining it and solar energy can ensure humanity’s future energy demands.
B. People living away from rivers and oceans cannot benefit it.
C. It is promising but very expensive.
 D. An effective way to harness wind power has not been figured out.
Question 10. The author of this passage is trying to .
A. support scientists in their search for new sources of energy
B. present some new sources of energy
C. explain the benefits and shortcomings of some kinds of energy
D. calculate the energy demands of the future
PASSAGE 6
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
Algae is a primitive form of life, a single-celled or simple multiple-celled organism that
is able to conduct the process of photosynthesis. It is generally found in water but can also be
found elsewhere, growing on such surfaces as rocks or trees. The various types of algae are
classified according to pigment.
Blue-green algae, or Cyanophyta, can grow at very high temperatures and under high-
intensity light. This is a microscopic type of algae, and some species consist of only one cell.
Blue-green algae is the oldest form of life with photosynthetic capabilities, and fossilized
remains of this type of algae more than
4. billion years old have been found in parts of Africa.
Green algae, or Chlorophyta, is generally found in fresh water. It reproduces on the
surfaces of enclosed bodies of water such as ponds or lakes and has the appearance of a fuzzy
green coating on the water. In large quantities, this type of algae may reproduce enough to give
a green color to an entire lake.
Brown algae, or Phaeophyta, grows in shallow, temperate water. This type of algae is the
largest in size and is most recognizable as a type of seaweed; kelp is a type of brown algae that
has grown to lengths of up to 200 feet. Its long stalks can be enmeshed on the ocean floor, or it
can float freely on the ocean’s surface.
Red algae, or Rhodophyta, is a small, delicate organism found in the deep waters of the
subtropics, where it often grows with coral. This type of algae has an essential role in the
formation of coral reefs: it secretes lime from the seawater to foster the formation of limestone
deposits.
(Source: TOEFL Reading)
Question 1. What is the author’s main purpose?
A. To show what color algae is
B. To differentiate the various classifications of algae
C. To describe where algae is found
D. To clarify the appearance of different types of algae
Question 2. Which of the following is NOT true about algae?
A. All types have only one cell. B. It can be found out of water.
C. It can use photosynthesis. D. It is not a relatively new form of life.
Question 3. The word “pigment” in the passage means .
A. size B. composition C. shape D. color
Question 4. The word “microscopic” in the passage is closest in meaning to .
A. visual B. mechanicalC. tiny D. bacterial
Question 5. Algae remnants found in Africa are .
A. still flourishing B. extremely old C. photogenicD. red in color
Question 6. Green algae is generally found .
A. on the ocean floor B. in fresh water
C. throughout ponds and lakes D. surrounding enclosed bodies of water
Question 7. According to the passage, red algae is .

A. sturdy B. fragile C. huge D. found in shallow water

Question 8. This passage would most probably be assigned reading in a course on .
A. chemistry B. botany C. physics D. zoology

PASSAGE 7
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions
Each advance in microscopic technique has provided scientists with new perspectives on the
function of living organisms and the nature of matter itself. The invention of the visible-light
microscope late in the sixteenth century introduced a previously unknown realm of single-
celled plants and animals. In the twentieth century, electron microscopes have provided direct
views of viruses and minuscule surface structures. Now another type of microscope, one that
utilize x-rays rather than light or electrons, offers a different way of examining tiny details, it
should extend human perception still farther into the natural worlD.
The dream of building an x-ray microscope dates to 1895, its development, however, was
virtually halted in the 1940's because the development of the electron microscope was
progressing rapidly. During the 1940's electron microscopes routinely achieved resolution
better than that possible with a visible-light microscope, while the performance of x-ray
microscopes resisted improvement. In recent years, however, interest in x-ray microscopes has
revived, largely because of advances such as the development of new sources of x-ray
illumination. As a result, the brightness available today is millions of times that of x-ray tubes,
which, for most of the century, were the only available sources of soft x-rays.
The new x-ray microscopes considerably improve on the resolution provided by optical
microscopes. They can also be used to map the distribution of certain chemical elements.
Some can form pictures in extremely short time, others hold the promise of special capabilities
such as three dimensional imaging. Unlike conventional electron microscopy, x-ray
microscopy enables specimens to be kept in air and in water, which means that biological
samples can be studied under conditions similar to their natural state. The illumination used,
so-called soft x-rays in the wavelength range of twenty to forty angstroms (an angstrom is one
ten-billionth of a meter), is also sufficiently penetrating to image intact biological cells in
many cases. Because of the wavelength of the x-rays used, soft x-ray microscopes will never
match the highest resolution possible with electron microscopes. Rather, their special
properties will make possible investigations that will complement those performed with light-
and electron-based instruments.
Question 1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The detail seen through a microscope B. Sources of illumination for microscopes
C. A new kind of microscope D. Outdated microscopic technique
Question 2. According to the passage, the invention of the visible-light microscope allowed
scientists to .
A. see viruses directly
B. develop the electron microscope later on
C. understand more about the distribution of the chemical elements
D. discover single celled plants and animals they had never seen before.
Question 3. The word "minuscule" in the passage is closest in meaning to .
A. circularB. dangerous C. complex D. tiny
Question 4. Why does the author mention the visible light microscope in the first paragraph?
A. To begin a discussion of sixteenth century discoveries.
B. To put the x-ray microscope in historical perspective

C. To show how limited its uses are

D. To explain how it functioned
Question 5. Why did it take so long to develop the x-ray microscope?
A. Funds for research were insufficient.
B. The source of illumination was not bright enough until recently.
C. Materials used to manufacture x-ray tubes were difficult to obtain.
D. X-ray microscopes were too complicated to operate.
Question 6. Based on the information in the passage, what can be inferred about x-ray
microscopes in the future?
A. They will probably replace electron microscopes altogether.
B. They will eventually be much cheaper to produce than they are now.
C. They will provide information not available from other kinds of microscopes.
D. They will eventually change the illumination range that they now use.
Question 7. The word "those" in the passage refers to .
A. properties B. investigations C. microscopes D. x-rays

PASSAGE 8
Read the following passage on transport, and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your
answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 1 to 8.
Quite different from storm surges are the giant sea waves called tsunamis, which derive their
name from the Japanese expression for “high water in a harbor.” These waves are also referred
to by the general public as tidal waves, although they have relatively little to do with tides.
Scientists often referred to them as seismic sea waves, far more appropriate in that they do
result from undersea seismic activity.
Tsunamis are caused when the sea bottom suddenly moves, during an underwater earthquake
or volcano for example, and the water above the moving earth is suddenly displaced. This
sudden shift of water sets off a series of waves. These waves can travel great distances at
speeds close to 700 kilometers per hour. In the open ocean, tsunamis have little noticeable
amplitude, often no more than one or two meters. It is when they hit the shallow waters near
the coast that they increase in height, possibly up to 40 meters.
Tsunamis often occur in the Pacific because the Pacific is an area of heavy seismic activity.
Two areas of the Pacific well accustomed to the threat of tsunamis are Japan and Hawaii.
Because the seismic activity that causes tsunamis in Japan often occurs on the ocean bottom
quite close to the islands, the tsunamis that hit Japan often come with little warning and can,
therefore, prove disastrous. Most of the tsunamis that hit the Hawaiian Islands, however,
originate thousands of miles away near the coast of Alaska, so these tsunamis have a much
greater distance to travel and the inhabitants of Hawaii generally have time for warning of
their imminent arrival.
Tsunamis are certainly not limited to Japan and Hawaii. In 1755, Europe experienced a
calamitous tsunami, when movement along the fault lines near the Azores caused a massive
tsunami to sweep onto the Portuguese coast and flood the heavily populated area around
Lisbon. The greatest tsunami on record occurred on the other side of the world in 1883 when
the Krakatoa volcano underwent a massive explosion, sending waves more than 30 meters
high onto nearby Indonesian islands; the tsunami from this volcano actually traveled around
the world and was witnessed as far away as the English Channel.
Question 1. The paragraph preceding this passage most probably discusses .
A. tides B. underwater earthquakes
C. storm surges D. tidal waves
Question 2. According to the passage, all of the following are true about tidal waves except that
.
A. they are the same as tsunamis
B. they refer to the same phenomenon as seismic sea waves
C. they are caused by sudden changes in high and low tides
D. this terminology is not used by the scientific community
Question 3. The word “displaced” in line 6 is closet in meaning to .
A. located B. moved C. filtered D. not pleased
Question 4. It can be inferred from the passage that tsunamis .
A. are often identified by ships on the ocean
 B. are far more dangerous on the coast than in the open ocean
C. causes serve damage in the middle if the ocean
D. generally reach heights greater than 40 meters

Question 5. In line 9, water that is “shallow” is NOT .

A. coastal B. tidalC. clear D. deep
Question 6. A main difference between tsunamis in Japan and in Hawaii is that tsunamis in
Japan are more likely to .
A. arrive without warning B. originate in Alaska
C. be less of a problem D. come from greater distances
Question 7. The possessive “their” in line 15 refers to .
A. these tsunamis B. thousands of miles
C. the inhabitants of Hawaii D. the Hawaii Islands
Question 8. The passage suggests that the tsunamis resulting from the Krakatoa volcano
.
A. resulted in little damage
B. caused volcanic explosions in the English Channel
C. actually traveled around the world
D. was unobserved outside of the Indonesian islands
PASSAGE 9
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 1 to 8.
Experts in climatology and other scientists are becoming extremely concerned about the
changes to our climate which are taking place. Admittedly, climate changes have occurred on
our planet before. For example, there have been several ice ages or glacial periods. These
climatic changes, however, were different from the modern ones in that they occurred
gradually and, as far as we know, naturally. The changes currently being monitored are said to
be the result not of natural causes, but of human activity. Furthermore, the rate of change is
becoming alarmingly rapid.
The major problem is that the planet appears to be warming up. According to some experts,
this warming process, known as global warming, is occurring at a rate unprecedented in the
last 10,000 years. The implications for the planet are very serious. Rising global temperatures
could give rise to such ecological disasters as extremely high increases in the incidence of
flooding and of droughts. These in turn could have a harmful effect on agriculture.
It is thought that this unusual warming of the Earth has been caused by so-called
greenhouse gases, such as carbon dioxide, being emitted into the atmosphere by car engines
and modern industrial processes, for example. Such gases not only add to the pollution of the
atmosphere, but also create a greenhouse effect, by which the heat of the sun is trapped. This
leads to the warming up of the planet.
 Politicians are also concerned about climate change and there are now regular summits on
the subject, attended by representatives from around 180 of the world’s industrialized
countries. Of these summits, the most important took place in Kyotoin Japanin 1997. There it
was agreed that the most industrialized countries would try to reduce the volume of
greenhouse gas emissions and were given targets for this reduction of emissions.
It was also suggested that more forests should be planted to create so-called sinks to absorb
greenhouse gases. At least part of the problem of rapid climate change has been caused by too
drastic deforestation. Sadly, the targets are not being met. Even more sadly, global warnings
about climate changes are often still being regarded as scaremongering.
Question 1. According to the passage, in what way did the climate changes in the ice ages
differ from the modern ones
A. They occurred naturally over a long period of time
B. They were partly intended.
C. They were wholly the result of human activity.
D. They were fully monitored by humans.
Question 2. The word “alarmingly” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to .
A. disapprovingly B. disappointingly C. surprisingly D. worryingly
Question 3. According to the passage, agriculture could .
A. make the global warming more serious
B. be indirectly affected by the global temperature rises
C. give rise to many ecological disasters
D. be directly damaged by the rises in global temperature
Question 4. Greenhouse gases cause the warming up of the Earth because they .

A. are emitted by car engines B. trap heat from the sun

C. do not add to atmosphere pollution D. are unusual gases
Question 5. According to the passage, 1997 witnessed .
A. the largest number of summits on the subject of climate change
B. the most important summit on climate change taking place in Kyoto, Japan
C. the highest attendance by representatives from 180 industrialised countries
D. widespread concern about climate change
Question 6. It can be inferred from the passage that the countries which are mainly responsible
for global warming are .
A. countries with the warmest climate B. developing countries
C. developed countries D. the most industrialized countries
Question 7. The word “There” in paragraph 5 refers to .
A. the world’s industrialized countries B. regular summits on climate change
 C. the most industrialized countries D. the 1997 summit in Kyoto, Japan
Question 8. Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. Carbon dioxide is one of the gases that may cause the so-called greenhouse effect.
B. The so-called sinks created by forests can absorb greenhouse gases.
C. The problem of rapid climate change has been caused mainly by deforestation
Politicians are among those who are concerned about climate change
PASSAGE 10
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Fungi are a group of organisms that, despite being plants, have no leaves or flowers. In fact,
fungi do not even share the green colour that most other plants display. Scientists estimate that
there are over 1.5 million different species of fungi in the world. Though, to date, only 100.000
have been identified, leaving many more that have not been found. One interesting feature of
fungi is that they often interact with oilier organisms in order to survive. These relationships
are at times beneficial to both organisms. Other times, the fungus benefits without causing
harm to the other organism.
Many types of fungus have beneficial relationships with plants. Initially many gardeners
would be concerned to know that their plants were colonised by a fungus. This is because
some fungi can cause plants to die. In fact, the Irish potato famine was caused by a fungus that
killed entire crops of potatoes. However, many plants actually depend on certain types of fungi
to help it stay healthy. Fungi are important to plants because they help plants absorb more
minerals from the soil than they could on their own. The reason for this has to do with how
fungi obtain food. Unlike green plants, fungi cannot make their own food. They must absorb
their food. When the fungi absorb minerals from the soil, they draw the nutrients closer to the
roots of the plants, so the plant is able to use them as well. The fungus also benefits from this
relationship. Using the minerals from the soil, as well as sunlight, the plants is able to produce
sugars and other nutrients. Then the fungus absorbs the nutrients from plant roots and uses
them to survive.
Not all relationships are beneficial for both organisms: in some interactions, only the fungus
benefits. Still, for some fungus species, contact with other organisms is essential. And though
the fungi do not provide any benefits for the other organism, they do not harm it either. One
example of this is a species called Pilobolus. This fungus relies on other animals to help it
reproduce. The Pilobolus grows in animal dung. When it becomes mature, it shoots its spores
away from the dung pile. The spores land in the grass where cows graze. The spores are
consumed by the animal but do not grow while inside the stomach. They travel through the
body of the animal until they are passed and deposited in another area, where they continue to
grow.
Question 1. It can be inferred from paragraph 1 that
A. Many species of fungi have yet to be discovered
B. Fungi do harm to the organism they interact with
C. Fungi can have green or dull brown colors
D. There are 100,000 species of fungi left no identity
Question 2. The word "absorb" in the passage 2 is closest in meaning to .
A. consume B. get in C. deprive D. take in
Question 3. According to paragraph 2, which of the following is not true about fungus
growing on or near plants?
A. It can help maintain in the plant’s health B. It neither benefits nor harms the plant
. C. It is sometimes dangerous for plants. D. It grows near the roots of the plant.
Question 4. The word "them" in the passage 2 refers to .
A. minerals B. plant roots C. fungi D. nutrients

Question 5. The author discusses cows and horses in paragraph 3 in order to

A. illustrate how fungus can be harmful B. explain how a type of fungus reproduces
C. give examples of animals that eat fungu D. show that fungus can be found anywhere
Question 6. According to the passage 3, Pilobolus fungus
A. doesn’t benefit from its relationship with animals
B. needs other organisms in order to reproduce
C. matures inside the stomachs of cows and horses
D. causes horses and cows to become ill
Question 7. The word "graze" in the passage is closest in meaning to .
A. eat B. live C. view D. grow
PASSAGE 11
Read the folloning passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Birds that feet in flocks commonly retire together into roosts. The reasons for roosting
communally are not always obvious, but there are some likely benefits. In winter especially, it
is important for birds to keep warm at night and conserve precious food reserves. One way to
do this is to find a sheltered, roost. Solitary roosters shelter indense vegetation or enter a cavity
- horned larks dig holes in the ground and ptarmigan burrow into snow banks - but the effect
of sheltering is magnified by several birds huddling together in the roosts, as wrens, swifts,
brown creepers, bluebirds, and anis do. Body contact reduces the surface area exposed to the
cold air, so the birds keep each other warm. Two kinglets huddling together were found to
reduce their heat losses by a quarter, and three together saved a third of their heat.
The second possible benefit of communal roosts is that they act as "information centers”.
During the day, parties of birds will have spread out to feed over a very large area. When they
return in the evening some will have fed well, but others may have found little to eat. Some
investigators have observed that when the birds set out again next morning, those birds that did
not feed well on the previous day appear to follow those that did. The behavior of common and
lesser kestrels may illustrate different feeding behaviors of similar birds with different roosting
habits. The common kestrel hunts vertebrate animals in a small, familiar hunting ground,
whereas the very similar lesser kestrel feeds on insects over a large area. The common kestrel
roosts and hunts alone, but the lesser kestrel roosts and hunts in flocks, possibly so one bird
can learn from others where to find insect swarms.
Finally, there is safety in numbers at communal roosts since there will always be a few birds
awake at any given moment to give the alarm. But this increased protection is partially
counteracted by the fact that mass roosts attract predators and are especially vulnerable if they
are on the ground. Even those in trees can be attacked by birds of prey. The birds on the edge
are at greatest risk since predators find it easier to catch small birds perching at the margins of
the roost.
Question 1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. How birds find and store food B. How birds maintain body heat in the winter
C. Why birds need to establish territory D. Why some species of birds nest together
Question 2. The word "conserve" is closest in meaning to .
A. retain B. watch C. locate D. share
Question 3. Ptarmigan keep warm in the winter by .
A. building nests in trees B. huddling together on the ground with other birds
C. digging tunnels into the snow D. burrowing into dense patches of vegetatiotnir
Question 4. The word "magnified" in line 6 is closest in meaning to .
A. combined B. caused C. modified D. intensified
Question 5. The author mentions kinglets in line 9 as an example of birds that .
A. nest together for warmth B. usually feed and nest in pairs
C. protect themselves by nesting in holes D. nest with other species of birds
Question 6. Which of the following statements about lesser and common kestrels is true?
A. The common kestrel nests in larger flocks than does the lesser kestrel.
B. The lesser kestrel and the common kestrel have similar diets.

C. The lesser kestrel feeds sociably but the common kestrel does not.
D. The common kestrel nests in trees; the lesser kestrel nests on the ground.
Question 7. Which of the following is a disadvantage of communal roosts that is mentioned in
the passage?
A. Diseases easily spread among the birds.
B. Food supplies are quickly depleted.
C. Some birds in the group will attack the others
D. Groups are more attractive to predators than individual birds are.
Question 8. The word "they" in the third paragraph refers to .
A. a few birds B. mass roosts C. predators D. trees

PASSAGE 12
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 1 to 8
The atmosphere that originally surrounded Earth was probably much different from the air we
breathe today. Earth's first atmosphere (some 4.6 billion years ago) was most likely hydrogen
and [Link] two most abundant gasses found in the universe--as well as hydrogen
compounds, such as methane and ammonia. Most scientists feel that this early atmosphere
escaped into space from the Earth's hot surface.
A second, more dense atmosphere, however, gradually enveloped Earth as gasses from molten
rocks within its hot interior escaped through volcanoes and steam vents. We assume that
volcanoes spewed out the same gasses then as they do today: mostly water vapor (about 80
percent), carbon dioxide (about ten percent), and up to a few percent nitrogen. These same
gasses probably created Earth's second atmosphere.
As millions of years passed, the constant outpouring of gasses from the hot interior--known as
out gassing
 provided a rich supply of water vapor, which formed into clouds. Rain fell upon Earth for
many thousands or years, forming the rivers, lakes, and oceans of the world. During this
time, large amounts of carbon dioxide were dissolved in the oceans. Through chemical and
biological processes, much of the carbon dioxide became locked up in carbon sedimentary
rocks, such as limestone. With much of the water vapor already condensed into water and
the concentration of carbon dioxide dwindling, the atmosphere gradually became rich
nitrogen.
It appears that oxygen, the second most abundant gas in today's atmosphere, probably began
an extremely slow increase in concentration as energetic rays from the sun split water vapor
into hydrogen and oxygen during a process called photodissociation. The hydrogen, being
lighter, probably rose and escaped into space, while the oxygen remained in the atmosphere.
This slow increase in oxygen may have provided enough of this gas for primitive plants to
evolve, perhaps two to three billion years ago. Or the plants may have evolved in an almost
oxygen-free (anaerobic) environment. At any rate, plant growth greatly enriched our
atmosphere with oxygen. The reason for this enrichment is that plants, in the presence of
sunlight, process carbon dioxide and water to produce oxygen.
Question 1. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. The original atmosphere on Earth was unstable.
B. The atmosphere on Earth has changed over time.
C. Hot underground gasses created clouds, which formed the Earth's atmosphere.
D. Plant growth depended on oxygen in the Earth's atmosphere.
Question 2. The word "enveloped" in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. escaped B. changed C. surrounded D. characterized
Question 3. According to the passage, out gassing eventually led to all of the following
EXCEPT

A. increases in the carbon dioxide content of sedimentary rocks

 B. the formation of clouds
C. the formation of bodies of water
D. decreases in the level of nitrogen

Question 4. The word "they” in the second paragraph refers to

A. molten rocks B. steam vents C. volcanoes D. gases
Question 5. The passage suggests that oxygen remained in the atmosphere because
A. it was heavier than hydrogen
B. hydrogen became trapped in limestone
C. sun rays created equal amounts of hydrogen and oxygen
D. it was caused by outgassing
Question 6. The word "At any rate" in the fifth paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. regardless B. fortunately C. in addition D. although unlikely
Question 7. The author organizes the discussion of the Earth's atmosphere in terms of the

A. occur in which changes

B. role of volcanoes in its formation
C. time it took for the Earth's surface: to cool and nitrogen to appear
D. chemical and physical features of gasses
Question 8. Which of the following does the passage mention as necessary for both the
production of oxygen by photodissociation and the production of oxygen by plants?
A. Water B. Nitrogen C. Carbon dioxide D. Hydrogen

PASSAGE 13
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C ,or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer for each of the questions.
Many ants forage across the countryside in large numbers and undertake mass migrations;
these activities proceed because one ant lays a trail on the ground for the others to follow. As a
worker ant returns home after finding a source of food, it marks the route by intermittently
touching its stinger to the ground and depositing a tiny amount of trail pheromone – a mixture
of chemicals that delivers diverse messages as the context changes. These trails incorporate no
directional information and may be followed by other ants in either direction.
Unlike some other messages, such as the one arising from a dead ant, a food trail has to be
kept secret from members of other species. It is not surprising then that ant species use a wide
variety of compounds as trail pheromones. Ants can be extremely sensitive to these signals.
Investigators working with the trail pheromone of the leafcutter ant Atta texana calculated that
one milligram of this substance would suffice to lead a column of ants three times around
Earth.
 The vapor of the evaporating pheromone over the trail guides an ant along the way, and the
ant detects this signal with receptors in its antennae. A trail pheromone will evaporate to
furnish the highest concentration of vapor right over the trail, in what is called a vapor space.
In following the trail, the ant moves to the right and left, oscillating from side to side across
the line of the trail itself, bringing first one and then the other antenna into the vapor space. As
the ant moves to the right, its left antenna arrives in the vapor space. The signal it receives
causes it to swing to the left, and the ant then pursues this new course until its right antenna
reaches the vapor space. It then swings back to the right, and so weaves back and forth down
the trail.
Question 1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The mass migration of ants B. How ants mark and follow a chemical trail
C. Different species of ants around the world D. The information contained in
pheromones
Question 2. The word “intermittently” in live 4 is closest in meaning to
A. periodically B. incorrectly C. rapidly D. roughly
Question 3. The phrase “the one” in line 8 refers to a single
A. message B. dead ant C. food trail D. species
Question 4. According to the passage, why do ants use different compounds as trail
pheromones?
A. To reduce their sensitivity to some chemicals B. To attract different types of ants
C. To protect their trail from other species D. To indicate how far away the food is
Question 5. The author mentions the trail pheromone of the leafcutter ant in line 11 to point out
A. how little pheromone is needed to mark a trail
B. the different types of pheromones ants can produce
C. a type of ant that is common in many parts of the world
D. that certain ants can produce up to one milligram of pheromone
Question 6. According to the passage, how are ants guided by trail pheromones?
A. They concentrate on the smell of food.
B. They follow an ant who is familiar with the trail.

C. They avoid the vapor spaces by moving in a straight line.

D. They sense the vapor through their antennae.
Question 7. The word “oscillating“ in line 17 is closest in meaning to
A. falling B. depositing C. swinging D. starting
Question 8. According to the passage, the highest amount of pheromone vapor is found
A. in the receptors of the ants B. just above the trail
C. in the source of food D. under the soil along the trail
PASSAGE 14
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the answer correct answer to each of the questions.
There are a number of natural disasters that can strike across the globe. Two that are
frequently linked to one another are earthquakes and tsunamis. Both of them can cause a great
amount of devastation when hit. However, tsunamis are the direct result of earthquakes and
cannot happen without them.
The Earth has three main parts. They are the crust, the mantle, and core. The crust is the
outer layer of the Earth. It is not single piece of land. Istead, it is comprised os a plates. There
are a few enormous plates and many smaller ones. These plates essentially rest upon the
mantle, which is fluid. As a result, the plates are in constant – yet slow – motion. The plates
may move away from or to word other plates. In some cases, they collide violently with the
plates adjoining them. The movement of the plates cause tension in the rock. Over a long
time, this tension may build up. When it is released, an earthquake happens.
Tens of thousands of earthquakes happen every year. The vast majority are so mall that
only scientific instruments can perceive them. Others are powerful enough that people can feel
them, yet they cause little harm or damage. More powerful earthquakes however, can cause
buildings, bridge, and other structures to collapse. They may additionally injure and kill
thousand of people and might even cause the land to change its appearance. Since most of the
Earth’s surface is water, numerous earthquakes happen beneath the planet’s oceans.
Underwater earthquakes can cause the seafloor to move. This results in the displacement of
water in the ocean. When this occurs, a tsunami may form. This is a wave that forms on the
surface and moves in all directions from the place where the earthquake happened. Atsunami
moves extremely quickly and can travel thousands of kilometers. As it approaches land, the
water near the coast gets sucked out to sea. This causes the tsunami to increase in height.
Minutes later, the tsunami arrives. A large tsunami – one more than ten meters in height – can
travel far inland. As it does that, it can flood the land, destroy human settlements, and kill large
numbers of people.
Question 1. Which of the following statements does paragraph I support?
A. Earthquakes cause more destrustion than tsunamis.
B. A tsunami happens in tadem with an earthquake.
C. The most severe types of nature disaster is an earthquake.
D. Earthquakes frequently take place after tsunamis.
Question 2. The word ‘it’ in bold in paragraph 2 refers to
A. the earth. B. the core C. the crust D. the mantle.
Question 3. What is the passage mainly about?
A. How earthquakes and tsunami occur?
B. When earthquakes are the most likely to happen?
C. What kind of damage natural disaster can cause?
D. Why tsunamis are deadlier than earthquakes?
Question 4. The word “adjioining” in bold in paragraph 2 is close in meaning to
A. bordering B. resding C. approaching D. appearing
Question 5. The word “perceive” in bold in paragraph 3 is closests in meaning to
A. comprehend B. detect C. prevent D. locate

Question 6. Which of the follwing is true regarding the passage?

A. There are many separate pieces that make it up.
B. It is the smallest of the Earth of the three layers.
C. It is thicker on land than it is under the water crust.
D. The mantle beneath it keeps it from moving too much.
Question 7. Based on the passage, wath is probably true about tsunamis?
A. They kill more people each year than earthquakes.
B. They are able to move as fast as the speed of the sound.
C. They can damage ships sailing on the ocean
. D. They can be deadly to people standing near the shore.
Question 8. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 3 about earthquakes?
A. How severe the majority of them are. B. What kind of damage they can cause.
C. How often powerful ones takes place.D. How many people they kill.

PASSAGE 15
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Dinosaurs were reptiles that lived during a period of earth’s history called the Mesozoic
Era, which is known as the Age of Reptiles. The first dinosaurs appeared more than 200
million years ago. For many millions of years, they dominated the land with their huge size
and strength. Then about 65 million years ago, they died out rather suddenly, never to
reemerge.
The word dinosaur comes from two Greek words meaning “terrible lizard”. Dinosaurs were
not lizards, but their appearance could be truly terrifying. The biggest ones weighed more
than ten times as much as a mature elephant and nearly equaled the size of most modern—day
whales. The famous kinds of dinosaurs, including the brontosaur and tyrannosaurus, reached
80 to 90 feet in length. Not all dinosaurs were giants, however, some were actually no larger
than a chicken.
Scientists still do not know what caused dinosaur to disappear. One theory involves a
change in the earth’s climate. It is believed that temperature dropped significantly towards the
end of the Cretaceous Period. Too large to hibernate and not having fur or feathers for
protection, it is possible that the climate became too chilly for dinosaurs. In contrast, other
species having protection, such as the mammals and birds, were able to survive.
Question 1. The word “ones” in the passage refers to
 A. dinosaurs B. millions C. lizards D. whales
Question 2. The word “chilly” in the passage refers to
A. very hot B. extremely cold C. very cold D. humid
Question 3. What is the best title for this passage?
A. The Domination of the Land B. The Metabolism of Dinosaurs
C. Earth’s Largest Reptiles D. The History of Earth
Question 4. It can be inferred from the passage that the Age of Reptiles lasted about
A. 200 million years B. 135 million years C. 80 million years D. 65 million years
Question 5. The author uses the phrase “never to reemerge” to indicate the dinosaurs
A. became extinct B. went into hiding C. never died out D. lost their way
Question 6. According to the passage, what is true about the size of dinosaurs?
A. It made them the largest creatures ever on earth.
B. It varied quite greatly.
C. It guaranteed their survival.
D. It was rather uniform.
Question 7. Which of the following can be inferred about mammals and birds?
A. Most have either fur or feathers over their bodies.
B. They preceded the dinosaurs.
C. They were too large to hibernate.
D. They could not survive the chilly temperatures.

PASSAGE 16
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
The mineral particles found in soil range in size from microscopic clay particles to large
boulders. The most abundant particles - sand, silt, and clay - are the focus of examination in
studies of soil texture. Texture is the term used to describe the line composite sizes of particles
in a soil sample, typically several representative handfuls. To measure soil texture, the sand,
silt, and clay particles are sorted out by size and weight. The weights of each size are then
expressed as a percentage of the sample weight.
In the field, soil texture can be estimated by extracting a handful of sod and squeezing the
damp soil into three basic shapes; cast, a lump formed by squeezing a sample in a clenched
fist; thread, a pencil shape formed by rolling soil between the palms; and ribbon, a flatfish
shape formed by squeezing a small sample between the thumb and index finger. The
behavioral characteristics of the soil when molded into each of these shapes, if they can be
formed at all, provides the basis for a general textural classification. The behavior of the soil in
the hand test is determined by the amount of clay in the sample. Clay particles are highly
cohesive, and when dampened, behave as a plastic. Therefore the higher the clay content in a
sample, the more refined and durable the shapes into which it can be molded.
Another method of determining soil texture involves the use of devices called sediment
sieves, screens built with a specified mesh size. When the soil is filtered through a group of
sieves, each with a different mesh size, the particles become grouped in corresponding size
categories. Each category can be weighed to make a textural determination. Although sieves
work well for silt, sand, and larger particles, they are not appropriate for clay particles. Clay is
far too small to sieve accurately; therefore, in soils with a high proportion of clay, the fine
particles are measured on the basis of their settling velocity when suspended in water. Since
clays settle so slowly, they are easily segregated from sand and silt. The water can be drawn
off and evaporated, leaving a residue of clay, which can be weighed.
Question 1. The author mentions “several representative handfuls” in the passage in order to
show
.
A. how small soil particles are B. the requirements for an adequate soil farm
C. the process by which soil is weighed D. the range of soil samples
Question 2. It can be inferred that the names of the three basic shapes mentioned in paragraph 2
reflect
.
A. the results of squeezing the soil B. the way the soil is extracted
C. the need to check more than one handful D. the difficulty of forming different shapes
Question 3. The word “dampened” in the passage is closest in meaning to .
A. examined B. stretched C. moistened D. damaged
Question 4. It can be inferred from the passage that a soil sample with little or no clay in it
.
A. may not hold its shape when molded B. does not have a classifiable texture
C. is not very heavy D. does not have a durable shape
Question 5. The word “they” in the passage refers to .
A. categories B. sieves C. clay particles D. larger particles
Question 6. The word “fine” in the passage is closest in meaning to .
A. various B. tiny C. excellent D. many

Question 7. During the procedure described in paragraph 3, when clay particles are placed
into water they .
A. dissolve quickly B. separate into different sizes
C. take some time to sink to the bottom D. stick to the sides of the water container
Question 8. It can be inferred from the passage that the sediment sieve has an advantage over
the hand test in determining soil texture because .
A. less training is required to use the sieve B. the sieve allows for a more exact measure
 C. the sieve can measure clay D. using the sieve takes less time

PASSAGE 17
Read the passage and mark A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions.
Jupiter is the largest and most massive planet and is fifth in order of distance from the sun.
It is well placed for observation for several months in every year and on average is the
brightest of the planets apart from Venus, though for relatively brief periods Mars may
outshine it. Jupiter’s less than 10 hour rotation period gives it the shortest day in the solar
system in so far as the principal planets are concerned. There are no true seasons on Jupiter
because the axial inclination to the perpendicular of the orbital plane is only just over 3°-less
than that for any other planet.
The most famous mark on Jupiter is the Great Red Spot. It has shown variations in both
intensity and color, and at times it has been invisible, but it always returns after a few years. At
its greatest extent it may be 40,000 kilometers long and 14,000 kilometers wide, so its surface
area is greater than that of Earth. Though the latitude of the Red Spot varies little, it drifts
about in longitude. Over the past century the total longitudinal drift has amounted to
approximately 1200°. The latitude is generally very close to - 22°. It was once thought that the
Red Spot might be a solid or semisolid body floating in Jupiter’s outer gas. However, the
Pioneer and Voyager results have refuted that idea and proven the Red Spot to be a
phenomenon of Jovian meteorology. Its longevity may well due to its exceptional size, but
there are signs that it is decreasing in size, and it may not be permanent. Several smaller red
spots have been seen occasionally but have not lasted.
Question 1. It can be inferred from the passage that .
A. a day on Earth is shorter than a day on Jupiter.
B. there are other structures on Jupiter that has the same size as the Great Red Spot.
C. there are times when Great Red Spot cannot be observed from the earth.
D. the Great Red Spot is the only structure on Jupiter.
Question 2. According to the passage, which planet typically shines the most brightly?
A. Earth B. Jupiter C. Venus D. Mars
Question 3. According to the passage, the Great Red Spot .
A. has different colors B. is as big as the earth
C. is a solid structure floating in the air D. has increased its size over the years
Question 4. The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to .
A. Jupiter B. The Great Red Spot C. intensity D. color
Question 5. The word “exceptional” in paragraph 2 mostly means .
A. extreme B. sustainable C. temporary D. infrequent
Question 6. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true?
A. Jupiter is bigger than all the other planet in the solar system.
 B. A day in Jupiter is nearly 10 hours long.
C. The Red Great Spot moves more vertically than horizontally.
D. Scientists have proof showing that smaller red spots are increasing their size to become
other Great Red Spots.
Question 7. The passage was probably taken from .
A. an art journal B. a geology magazine C. a high school textbook D. an archeology
book

PASSAGE 18
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the best answer to each of the following questions.
Since the world has become industrialized, there has been an increase in the number of
animal species that have either become extinct or have neared extinction. Bengal tigers, for
instance, which once roamed the jungles in vast numbers, now number only about 2300 and by
the year 2025, their population is estimated to be down to zero. What is alarming about the
case of the Bengal tiger is that this extinction will have been caused almost entirely by
poachers who, according to some sources, are not interested in material gain but in personal
gratification. This is an example of the callousness that is part of what is causing the problem
of extinction. Animals like the Bengal tiger, as well as other endangered species, are a valuable
part of the world’s ecosystem. International laws protecting these animals must be enacted to
ensure their survival, and the survival of our planet.
Countries around the world have begun to deal with the problem in various ways. Some
countries, in order to circumvent the problem, have allocated large amounts of land to animal
reserves. They, then charge admission to help defray the costs of maintaining the parks, and
they often must also depend on world organizations for support. With the money they get, they
can invest equipment and patrols to protect the animals. Another solution that is an attempt to
stem the tide of animal extinction is an international boycott of products made from
endangered species. This seems fairly effective, but will not by itself, prevent animals from
being hunted and killed.
Question 1. What is the main topic of the passage?
A. problems with industrialization B. international boycotts
C. the Bengal tiger D. endangered species
Question 2. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word “alarming” in the first
paragraph?
A. distressing B. gripping C. serious D. dangerous
Question 3. The above passage is divided into two paragraphs in order to contrast .
A. a comparison and a contrast B. a statement and an illustration
C. a problem and a solution D. a specific and general information
Question 4. What does the word “This” in the first paragraph refer to?
A. poachers who seek personal gratification B. sources that may not be accurate
 C. Bengal tigers that are decreasing D. endangered species that are increasing
Question 5. The word “defray” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to which of the
following?
A. raise B. lower
C. make an investment toward D. make a payment on
Question 6. The author uses the phrase “stem the tide” in the second paragraph to mean
.
A. stop B. saveC. tax D. touch
Question 7. Which of the following best describes the author’s attitude?
A. vindictive B. forgiving C. concerned D. surprised

PASSAGE 19
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions
Since water is the basis of life, composing the greater part of the tissues of all living things,
the crucial problem of desert animals is to survive in a world where sources of flowing water
are rare. And since man’s inexorable necessity is to absorb large quantities of water at frequent
intervals, he can scarcely comprehend that many creatures of the desert pass their entire lives
without a single drop.
Uncompromising as it is, the desert has not eliminated life but only those forms unable to
withstand its desiccating effects. No moist- skinned, water-loving animals can exist there. Few
large animals are found. The giants of the North American desert are the deer, the coyote, and
the bobcat. Since desert country is open, it holds more swift-footed running and leaping
creatures than the tangled forest. Its population is largely nocturnal, silent, filled with
reticence, and ruled by stealth. Yet they are not emaciated. Having adapted to their austere
environment, they are as healthy as animals anywhere else in the word. The secret of their
adjustment lies in the combination of behavior and physiology. None could survive if, like
mad dogs and Englishmen, they went out in the midday sun; many would die in a matter of
minutes. So most of them pass the burning hours asleep in cool, humid burrows underneath
the ground, emerging to hunt only by night. The surface of the sun-baked desert averages
around 150 degrees, but 18 inches down the temperature is only 60 degrees.
Question 1. The author mentions all the following as examples of the behavior of desert
animals EXCEPT .
A. they are watchful and quiet. B. they sleep during the day.
C. they dig home underground. D. they are noisy anad aggressive.
Question 2. We can infer from the passage that .
A. healthy animals live longer lives. B. living things adjust to their environment.
C. desert life is colorful and diverse. D. water is the basis of desert life.
Question 3. According to the passage, creatures in the desert .
A. are smaller and fleeter than forest animals.
 B. are more active during the day than those in the tangled forest.
C. live in an accommodating environment.
D. are not as healthy as those anywhere else in the world.
Question 4. The phrase “those forms” in the passage refers to all of the following EXCEPT
.
A. moist-skinned animals. B. many large animals.
C. water-loving animals. D. the coyote and the bobcat.
Question 5. The word “them” means .
A. animalsB. minutes C. people D. water
Question 6. The word “emaciated” in the passage mostly means .
A. wild B. unmanageable C. cunning D. unhealthy
Question 7. Man can hardly understand why many animals live their whole life in the desert, as
.
A. water is an essential part of his existence.
B. very few large animals are found in the desert.

C. sources of flowing water are rare in a desert.

D. water composes the greater part of the tissues of living things.
Question 8. The title for this passage could be .
A. “Man’s Life in a Desert Environment” B. “Desert Plants”
C. “Animal Life in a Desert Environment” D. “Life Underground”

PASSAGE 20
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Whales are the largest animals in the world, and the gentlest creatures we know. Although the
whale is very huge, it is not hindered at all by its size when it is in the water. Whales have tails
that end like flippers. With just a gentle flick, it can propel itself forward. The skin of a whale
is so smooth that it does not create any friction that can slow the whale down. A whale’s
breathing hole is located on the top of its head, so it can breathe without having to completely
push its head out of the water. Whales are protected from the cold seawater by body fat that is
called blubber.
Whales live in the ocean but, in terms of behaviours, they are more similar to humans than
fish. They live in family groups and they even travel in groups when they have to migrate from
cooler to warmer waters. The young stay with their parents for as long as fifteen years. Whales
are known not to desert the ill or injured members; instead, they cradle them.
When whales are in danger, there are people who go to great lengths to help them. One such
case occurred in 1988, when three young whales were trapped in the sea. It was close to winter
and the sea had begun to freeze over. Whales are mammals that require oxygen from the air, so
the frozen ice was a great danger to them. All they had then was a tiny hole in the ice for them
to breathe through. Volunteers from all over soon turned up to help these creatures. They cut
holes in the ice to provide more breathing holes for the whales. These holes would also serve
as guides for the whales so that they could swim to warmer waters.
(Adapted from [Link]
Question 1. Which of the following best describes the main idea of this passage?
A. Some remarkable similarities of whales to humans.
B. Whales as the only animals to live in warm water.
C. Whales as the largest, gentlest but vulnerable creatures.
D. Successful attempts to rescue whales all over the world.
Question 2. Whales can move easily in water thanks to their .
A. size and head B. tail and skin C. skin and head D. tail and blubber
Question 3. Where is the whale’s breathing hole located?
A. On its tail B. On its face C. On its head D. On its back
Question 4. According to paragraph 2, the author mentions all of the following to show that
whales “are more similar to humans” EXCEPT .
A. they do not desert the ill or injured members.
B. the young stay with their parents for almost fifteen years.
C. they live in family groups and travel in groups.
D. they do not migrate from cooler to warmer waters.
Question 5. The word “tiny” in paragraph 3 probably means .
A. very fatB. very deep C. very small D. very ugly
Question 6. The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to .
A. warmer waters B. the whales C. guides D. holes

Question 7. According to the passage, why was the frozen ice on the sea surface a danger to
whales?
A. Because the water was too cold for them as they were warm-blooded.
B. Because they couldn’t eat when the weather was too cold.
C. Because whales couldn’t breathe without sufficient oxygen.
D. Because they couldn’t swim in icy cold water.

PASSAGE 22
In two studies publicly presented on Monday at the annual meeting of the American
Society for Biochemistry and Molecular Biology in Orlando, Florida in the United States,
scientists have disclosed new steps toward using natural adhesives made by the dusky Arion
slug (Arion subfuscus) in medical applications such as in closing skin wounds and reducing
scarring.
Arion slug secretes an unusual glue, making itself a difficult target for predators. This
glue remains both sticky and flexible and works even when the surface the slug is on is wet.
Previous studies have shown that, unlike many artificial adhesives, Arion slug glue is non-
toxic to mammalian tissue.
Scientist Rebecca Falconer, an Ithaca College undergraduate who led one of the two
studies, said "Typical sutures like staples and stitches often lead to scarring and create holes in
the skin that could increase the chance of infection after surgery [...] Understanding the roles
of adhesive proteins in the slug glue would aid in the creation of a medical adhesive that can
move and stretch yet still retain its strength and adhesiveness." In her set of experiments,
Falconer observed eleven proteins found only in the Arion slug glue and used DNA
recombination to produce usable amounts of each of these proteins, whereas Christopher
Gallego-Lazo, also an Ithaca undergraduate, evaluated the glue by focusing on the chemical
bonds within it. Gallego-Lazo found that slight changes in these chemical bonds could alter the
strength of the slug glue.
Gallego-Lazo said, "Few studies on biological adhesives have identified the exact nature of the
bonds holding the glue together. This knowledge can guide the development of an organic
synthetic adhesive that would reduce the risk of infection and scarring compared to stitches
and staples and could be applied rapidly and simply."
(Adapted from
Wikinews)
Question 1. The word “disclosed” in the passage is closest in meaning to .
A. discovered B. approved C. revealed D. proved
Question 2. The word “its” in the third paragraph refers to .
A. slug glue B. adhesive proteins C. the creationD. medical adhesive
Question 3. According to the passage, all of the following characteristics of the slug glue have
been studied by scientists EXCEPT for .
A. Inner chemical bonds B. Toxicity
C. Adhesive proteins D. DNA recombination
Question 4. What is the passage mainly about?
A. New discoveries about artificial adhesives.
B. Ongoing research about a new type of organic glue.
C. The drawbacks of typical sutures.
D. Reducing the risk of infection caused by stiches and staples.
Question 5. The chemical bonds of the slug glue are being studied because .
A. they can directly alter the strength of the slug glue.
B. they can be used to produce usable amounts of adhesive proteins.
C. they can lead to infection like stiches and staples.
 D. they can provide scientists with useful information.

PASSAGE 23
One million of the planet's eight million species are threatened with extinction by humans,
scientists warned Monday in what is described as the most comprehensive assessment of
global nature loss ever. Their report paints a bleak picture of a planet ravaged by an ever-
growing human population, whose insatiable consumption is destroying the natural world.
Shrinking habitat, exploitation of natural resources, climate change and pollution are the
main drivers of species loss and are threatening more than 40% of amphibians, 33% of coral
reefs and over a third of all marine mammals with extinction, according to the report of the
Intergovernmental Science-Policy Platform on Biodiversity and Ecosystem Services (IPBES),
a U.N committee. This report comes six months after the UN Intergovernmental Panel on
Climate Change (IPCC) warned that the world has less than 12 years to avoid catastrophic
levels of global warming. In the same way that the IPCC report turned the climate crisis into a
political concern, the authors of the IPBES report hope that it will thrust nature loss into the
global spotlight.
Just as with climate change, humans are the main culprits of biodiversity damage, altering
75% of Earth's land and 66% of marine ecosystems since pre-industrial times and using more
than a third of the world's land and 75% of freshwater supplies for crop or livestock
production, according to the report. Additionally, it also pointed out that in 2015, a third of
marine stocks were being fished at unsustainable levels and the amount of raw timber being
harvested has increased by almost half since 1970, with up to 15% of it cut illegally.
Moreover, marine plastic pollution has increased tenfold since 1980. Pollution entering coastal
ecosystems has produced more than 400 ocean "dead zones," totaling an area bigger than the
United Kingdom. These areas are so starved of oxygen they can barely support marine life.
However, "it is not too late to make a difference, but only if we start now at every level
from local to global," said Sir Robert Watson, IPBES chair, adding that this would require a
complete change of economic systems and a shift in political and social mindsets. Several
recommendations were, made in the report, including improving sustainability in farming by
planning landscapes so that they provide food while supporting the species that live there at
the same time, reforming supply chains and reducing food waste. When it comes to healthy
oceans, the report recommends effective fishing quotas, designated protected areas and
reducing the pollution that runs off from the land into the sea, among other actions.
(Adapted from
[Link]
Question 1. Which of the following is the passage’s main concern?
A. How governments can save species from extinction.
B. Marine life under threat due to increasing pollution.
C. The impending great loss of biodiversity due to human activities.
D. The negative impacts of climate change on biodiversity.
Question 2. What can be inferred from paragraph 2?
A. A catastrophe will happen in 12 years if global warming continues.
 B. Authors of the IPBES report want to increase awareness about nature loss.
C. The IPCC report drew the attention of politicians to the extinction of species.
D. Climate change is the biggest contributor to species loss, according to IPBES.
Question 3. The word “bleak” in paragraph 1 can be best replaced by .
A. dangerous B. unpromising C. cruel D. severe

Question 4. The word “it” in the second paragraph refers to .

A. political concern B. IPCC’s report C. IPBES’s report D. climate crisis
Question 5. It can be inferred from the last paragraph that .
A. International agencies are entirely responsible for preventing nature loss.
B. Changing economic systems will lead to a shift in political and social mindsets.
C. Landscapes can be altered in ways that benefit species in the area.
D. By minimizing pollutants from land, polluted oceans can be cleaned up.
Question 6. The word “support” in the fourth paragraph is closest in meaning to .
A. assist B. provide C. hold D. sustain
Question 7. Which of the following is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. More than a quarter of Earth’s species are on the verge of extinction.
B. Pollution levels in ocean “dead zones” are far greater than those in the United Kingdom.
C. Humans are to blame for both climate change and loss of biodiversity.
D. Amphibians account for 40% of the species that are under threat.
Question 8. Which of the following statements can be inferred from the passage?
A. Marine life is suffering the greatest impact from human activities.
B. The exploitation of resources is a threat for animals as well as plants.
C. We can only stop biodiversity loss by making farming more sustainable.
D. 75% of Earth’s land was altered as a consequence of industrial activities.
PASSAGE 24
Weekly Reader News heads down under to find out what scientists are doing to save
Australia’s koalas.
Koalas are pictured everywhere in Australia – on cleaning products, on boxes of chocolate,
on sports team jerseys.
Yet the animals live only in pockets along the east coast. The marsupials once inhabited the
entire coastline. (A marsupials is a mammal that typically carries its young in a pouch.)
The koala’s population dropped after farmers cut down many of the forests where koalas
lived and hunters killed the animals for their fur. Buy the early 1900s, “koalas were basically
shot out of south Australia,” says ecologist Bill Ellis. An ecologist is a scientist who studies
the relationships among living things and their environments.
 I recently joined Ellis and his team in a forest on St. Bees Island, 19 miles off the
northeastern coast of Australia, with eight other volunteers. The island is a natural laboratory,
yielding findings that may help protect koalas elsewhere on the continent.
Trees Tags
The volunteers combed the island for koalas in the blue gum trees. When we found a koala,
we gathered information about the trees in the area.
Blue gum is a species of eucalyptus tree in which the furry leaf eaters spend most of their
time. Eucalyptus trees are native to Australia, and their leaves are the main food source for
koalas. Although koalas can walk on the ground, they are better suited for life in the canopy,
the high cover of branches and leaves in a forest.
Goat Trouble?
What has Ellis’s research told him so far? The St. Bees population seems to be healthy. Yet
Ellis wonders whether the koalas might be heading for hard times. The island is overrun with
wild goats, and Ellis thinks the goats are eating the small blue gum trees.
Without those trees, the koalas will run out of food in the future. Ellis hopes more research
will help him understand how to protect the blue gums – and the koalas that depend on them.
“I think that’s what everyone is trying to do – to make a difference,” Ellis says.
(Weekly Reader 2007)
Question 1. Though koalas can walk on the ground, they are better suited for life .
A. on island off the northeastern coast
B. in the high cover of branches and leaves in the forest
C. by the coastline
D. inside of the blue gum tree
Question 2. Why do you think the koalas no longer inhabit the entire coastline?
A. The koalas have moved to a drier environment.
B. Koalas have been killed by hunters.
C. Koalas have been moved to zoos for protection
D. Disease has caused the koalas to decrease in population.
Question 3. How does the author organize the information in this passage?

A. The author provides details about the unusual nature and habitat of koalas.
B. The author compares the arguments for and against koalas rescue.
C. The author describes a current problem and investigates research on solutions.
D. The author combines fiction and nonfiction information about koalas to explain their
popularity in Australian society.
Question 4. What can be inferred from the information in the second paragraph regarding
koalas being “pictured everywhere” in Australian?
A. Koalas have been found to be good advertisements for products.
B. Koalas are dying out, so pictures are difficult to find.
 C. Koalas are well-liked across Australian.
D. Many ecologists are trying to save the koalas.
Question 5. What words could best replace the phrase “yielding findings” in the paragraph 4?
A. producing discoveries B. giving treasures
C. giving away materials D. making way for discoveries
Question 6. How do you think goats cause trouble for the koalas?
A. Koalas catch diseases from the goats.
B. Goats and koalas fight over living space.
C. Goats are meat eaters and koalas are food goats.
D. Goats eat the small trees that the koalas depend on for food.
Question 7. Since koalas are better suited to life in the canopy than to walking on the ground,
we may assume they have .
A. extra big feet B. floppy pouches C. strong armsD. beautiful fur
Question 8. What is the main idea of this passage?
A. Bill Ellis studies marsupials and their habitats in order to ensure that koalas and wild
goats can live harmoniously.
B. Koalas are very unusual, carrying their young in a pouch and inhabiting only the east
coast of Australia.
C. Koalas are an Australian treasure, pictured on items in the grocery store and on sports
team jerseys.
D. Researchers and volunteers are researching koala habitats, many of which have been
destroyed.

PASSAGE 25
Coral reefs are the most diverse of all marine ecosystems. They are full of life, with perhaps
one quarter of all ocean species depending on reefs for food and shelter. This is a remarkable
statistic when you consider that reefs cover just a tiny fraction of the earth’s surface and less
than two per cent of the ocean bottom. Because they are so diverse, coral reefs are often called
the rainforests of the ocean. Coral reefs are very important to people. They even provide
seventy per cent of the food demands for some marine species, protection of shorelines, jobs
based on tourism (nine out of twelve activities for tourists in Nha Trang, for example, involve
the coral reefs), and even medicines.
Unfortunately, climate change is the greatest global threat to coral reef ecosystems.
Scientific evidence now clearly indicates that the Earth’s atmosphere and ocean are warming,
and that these changes are primarily due to greenhouse gases derived from human activities.
As temperatures rise, mass coral bleaching events and infectious disease outbreaks are
becoming more frequent. Additionally, carbon dioxide absorbed into the ocean from the
atmosphere has already begun to reduce to calcification rates in reef- building and reef-
associated organisms by altering seawater chemistry through decrease in PH. This process is
called ocean acidification.
 Climate change will affect coral reef ecosystems, through sea level rise, changes to the
frequency and intensity of tropical storms, and altered ocean circulation patterns. When
combined, all of these impacts dramatically after ecosystem function, as well as the goods and
services coral reef ecosystems provide to people around the globe.
There are so many things you can do to ensure that you are environmentally conscious
when you visit coral reefs or coastal areas. These include things such as hiring local guides to
support the economy, removing all trash from an area, never touching or harassing wildlife in
reef areas, and avoiding dropping your boat anchor or chain nearby a coral reef.
Finally, stay informed and spread the word! Educate yourself about why healthy coral reefs
are valuable to the people, fish, plants, and animals that depend on them. Your excitement will
help others get involved.
(Source: Adapted from Study Skills: Managing Your Learning —
NUI Galway)
Question 1. Though the coverage of coral reefs on the sea bed is , its vital role is undeniable.
A. remarkable B. small C. diverse D. huge
Question 2. of all the ocean species find food and home in the coral reefs.
A. Two per cent B. Seventy per cent C. Twenty- five per cent D. Nine per cent
Question 3. Carbon dioxide from the atmosphere directly caused .
A. infectious disease outbreaks B. reef- building
C. sea level rise D. ocean acidification
Question 4. Which of the following statement is NOT true?
A. Coral reefs can be compared to rainforests due to its diversity.
B. The effects of global warming are only on the ecosystems themselves.
C. You can help the coral reefs by educating not only yourself but people around you.
D. Human activities which cause greenhouse gases are major reasons for the climate change.
Question 5. The word “conscious” in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to .

A. knowledgeableB. curious C. aware D. acknowledgeable

PASSAGE 26
Pollution is the degradation of natural environment by external substances introduced
directly or indirectly. Human health, ecosystem quality and aquatic and terrestrial biodiversity
may be affected and altered permanently by pollution.
Pollution occurs when ecosystems cannot get rid of substances introduced into the
environment. The critical threshold of its ability to naturally eliminate substances is
compromised and the balance of the ecosystem is broken.
The sources of pollution are numerous. The identification of these different pollutants and
their effects on ecosystems is complex. They can come from natural disasters or the result of
human activity, such as oil spills, chemical spills, nuclear accidents... These can have terrible
consequences on people and the planet where they live: destruction of the biodiversity,
increased mortality of the human and animal species, destruction of natural habitat, damage
caused to the quality of soil, water and air...
Preventing pollution and protecting the environment necessitate the application of the
principles of sustainable development. We have to consider satisfying the needs of today
without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their needs. This means that we
should remedy existing pollution, but also anticipate and prevent future pollution sources in
order to protect the environment and public health. Any environmental damage must be
punishable by law and polluters should pay compensation for the damage caused to the
environment.
Question 1. What is the topic of the passage?
A. Pollution: causes, effects and solutions. B. Pollution - a big problem.
C. What is pollution? D. What should we do to protect environment?
Question 2. The phrase "get rid of" in paragraph 2 is closest meaning to:
A. remove B. replace C. reuse D. recycle
Question 3. According to the passage, these are sources of pollution, EXCEPT
A. natural disasters B. oil spills C. killing animals D. nuclear accidents
Question 4. Which sentence is TRUE?
A. Human race is the only species affected by pollution.
B. It is not easy to identify the pollutants and their effects on ecosystem.
C. Pollution is harmless to natural habitat.
D. Human activity doesn't cause pollution.
Question 5. The pronoun “they" in paragraph 3 refers to
A. natural disasters B. people C. consequences D. nuclear accidents
Question 6. According to the passage, what should be done to protect the environment?
A. We should try our best to meet our needs of today.
B. We should not care for the existing pollution.
C. People who damage the environment should be rewarded.
D. People should be made to pay compensation if they damage the environment.
Question 7. It can be inferred from the last paragraph that
A. We cannot prevent the sources that may cause pollution in the future.
B. Future generations may not meet their needs because of pollution we cause today.

C. We can do nothing to remedy pollution.

D. Biodiversity will not be influenced if animals are killed.
PASSAGE 27
With 13,000 floral species and over 15,000 faunal species, three newly discovered big
animal species, and a ratio of country/world species of 6.3%, Vietnam has enormous tourism-
particularly ecotourism- potential. In fact, since 1986, when renovation reforms began the shift
from a centrally planned to a socialist-oriented market, or multi-sectoral, economy, tourism
has been an sector of primary concern to the government. In May 1995, the prime minister of
Vietnam approved a master plan of tourism development for the period 1995-2010. In
February 1999, the state decree on tourism was part of the socio-economic development
strategy for the period 2001-2010 approved at the IX National Congress of the Party: “Tourism
development has become a spearhead economic industry indeed. It is necessary to improve the
quality and effectiveness of tourism activities, bringing into full play the natural conditions,
and cultural and historical tradition to meet the domestic and international demand for tourism
and to catch up with tourism development in the region” (Document of the IX National
Congress 2001).
Tourism has so far brought great benefits to the economy, but it has also contributed to
environmental degradation, especially biodiversity deterioration. Thus, the concept of
“sustainable development”— development which meets the needs of the present without
compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs—must be factored into
tourism development. This consideration is reflected in the term “ecotourism,” which is
referred to variously as ecological or environmental tourism, nature or green tourism,
sustainable or responsible tourism.
Ecotourism involves travel to relatively undisturbed natural areas with the specific object of
studying, admiring, and enjoying scenery, plants, and animals, as well as any cultural features
found in these areas. It is distinguished from mass or resort tourism by its lower impact on the
environment, lower infrastructure requirements, and its role in educating tourists about natural
environments and cultural values.
Fully aware of its significance, the government of Vietnam has prioritized ecotourism in its
strategy for tourism development to ensure both sustainability and economic benefits. Though
ecotourism in Vietnam is at a beginning stage of development, it is expected to grow strongly
through support from government and international organizations.
Question 1. How many types of plants does Vietnam have?
A. Thirteen thousand B. Fifteen thousand C. Sixty three D. Three
Question 2. When has tourism officially contributed to socio-economic development?
A. Since 2010 B. Since 1995 C. Since 1999 D. Since 2001
Question 3. It can be inferred that in the late 20 century Vietnam’s tourism
th
.
A. has never been a spearhead economic industry
B. was not as developed as that in other Asian countries
C. has always been effective and necessary for economy
D. did not need natural conditions or cultural traditions
Question 4. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as “ecotourism”?
A. Environmental tourism B. Green tourism
C. Responsible tourism D. Resort tourism
Question 5. Ecotourism is mainly for purposes.
 A. entertaining B. educational C. relaxing D. advertising

Question 6. What is the word “degradation” closest in meaning to?

A. Creation B. Pollution C. Protection D. Decline
Question 7. What does the word “It” in Paragraph 3 refer to?
A. Tourism B. Ecotourism C. Environment D. Requirement
Question 8. According to the passage, who help ecotourism to develop in Vietnam?
A. Vietnam’s government and international organisations.
B. Business people and environmental conversationist.
C. Foreign tourists and local Vietnamese people.
D. Business corporations and non-government organisations.
PASSAGE 28
Pollutants in the air aren’t always visible and come from many different sources. Smog
hanging over cities is the most familiar and obvious form of air pollution. But there are
different kinds of pollution – some visible, some invisible – that contribute to global warning.
Generally any substance that people introduce into the atmosphere that has damaging effects
on living things and the environment is considered air pollution.
Carbon dioxide, a greenhouse gas, is the main pollutant that is warming Earth. Though
living things emit carbon dioxide when they breathe, carbon dioxide is widely considered to
be a pollutant when associated with cars, planes, power plants, and other human activities that
involve the burning of fossil fuels such as gasoline and natural gas. In the past 150 years, such
activities have pumped enough carbon dioxide into the atmosphere to raise its levels higher
than they have been for hundreds of thousands of years.
Other greenhouse gases include methane – which comes from such sources as swamps and
gas emitted by livestock – and chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), which were used in refrigerants
and aerosol propellants until they were banned because of their deteriorating effect on Earth's
ozone layer.
Another pollutant associated with climate change is sulfur dioxide, a component of smog.
Sulfur dioxide and closely related chemicals are known primarily as a cause of acid rain. But
they also reflect light when released in the atmosphere, which keeps sunlight out and causes
Earth to cool. Volcanic eruptions can spew massive amounts of sulfur dioxide into the
atmosphere, sometimes causing cooling that lasts for years. In fact, volcanoes used to be the
main sources of atmospheric sulfur dioxide; today people are.
Industrialized countries have worked to reduce levels of sulfur dioxide, smog, and smoke in
order to improve people’s health. But a result, not predicted until recently, is that the lower
sulfur dioxide levels may actually make global warming worse. Just as sulfur dioxide from
volcanoes can cool the planet by blocking sunlight, cutting the amount of the compound in
the atmosphere lets more sunlight through, warming the Earth. This effect is exaggerated
when elevated levels of other greenhouse gases in the atmosphere trap the additional heat.
Question 1. According to the passage, some kind of air pollution .
A. are not introduced into the atmosphere B. do not damage the environment
 C. cannot be seen with our naked eyes D. do not affect living things seriously
Question 2. What is the main origin of carbon dioxide in the air?
A. Living things' breathing B. Manufacturing cars
C. Building power plantsD. Burning coals and petrol
Question 3. What were banned because of their damaging the ozone layer?
A. Chlorofluorocarbons B. Methane and gas
C. Refrigerants D. Aerosol propellants
Question 4. What is NOT mentioned as a feature of sulfur dioxide?
A. Creating smog B. Causing acid rain C. Reflecting light D. Warming the Earth up
Question 5. What has been the main source of atmospheric sulfur dioxide recently?
A. Human activities B. Volcanic eruptions C. Forest fires D. Earthquakes
Question 6. What does the word “the compound” in the last paragraph refer to?

A. carbon dioxide B. methane C. chlorofluorocarbons D. sulfur dioxide

Question 7. What is the word “exaggerated” in the last sentence closest in meaning to?
A. overdone B. understated C. overestimated D. over-invested
Question 8. What is the text about?
A. Ocean pollution B. Air pollutants
C. Tropical environment D. How to reduce pollution
PASSAGE 29
Every summer, three billion birds of 300 species migrate from northern Africa to Europe
and Asia. In the winter, they return to Africa’s warmer shores. The bird’s migration is long and
difficult, and some of the animals inevitably die during each trip. However, it is not this twice-
a-year journey that poses the greatest risk to these animals. The main threat to the birds’
survival comes from human hunters.
All over the Mediterranean millions of migrating birds are killed for food profit, and sport
every year. As a result, bird populations are dropping all over the region. In nations along the
Mediterranean, many migratory birds are illegally trapped or shot. In addition to traps, hunters
also use electronic calls to catch birds. This tool, which a hunter can operate from a cell phone,
mimics bird sounds and is so effective in attracting the animals that in some countries, bird
populations have plummeted. Some hunters also use nets to capture birds as they fly close to
the sea. The nets are high-going from ground level to just over 3 meters – and invisible to the
birds, allowing hunters to trap hundred birds at a time.
Countries all over the Mediterranean are aware that bird populations are susceptible, and
many are working to address this problem by making migratory hunting illegal in some
countries or strictly controlling it in others. More nature-protection groups are also making
sure that laws are obeyed. The organization WWF Italy, for example, works with volunteers to
stop poachers and destroy birdsong devices that attract birds.
Question 1. What is the passage mainly about?
 A. problems caused by migrating birds
B. how birds are being hunted worldwide
C. how tourism is causing a drop in bird population
D. dangers to migrating birds in the Mediterranean
Question 2. The purpose of the first paragraph is to describe .
A. how many birds travel large distances to and from Africa
B. why some birds migrate while others do not
C. why bird numbers are starting to drop in the Mediterranean
D. how some migrating birds cannot endure the journeys
Question 3. What is the biggest danger to migrating birds?
A. crossing the Sahara Desert B. lack of food
C. being hunted by humans D. storms in the Mediterranean
Question 4. Which of these is NOT mentioned as a way of attracting and catching birds?
A. traps B. food offering C. nets D. bird calls
Question 5. The word “susceptible” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to .
A. rescuedB. vulnerable C. crowded D. preserved

PASSAGE 30
ROGUE
WAVES
Rogue waves are extremely large waves that are more than double the average height of most
waves. According to mathematical calculations and various personal accounts, rogue waves
can reach remarkable heights. They appear unexpectedly in calm waters and can do major
damage, even to large ships. Unlike tsunamis, which are practically undetectable in deep
water, rogue waves only occur far out at sea. Stories about rogue waves have circulated
amongst sailors for centuries, but it was not until recently that scientists confirmed they
actually exist. What they still are not sure of, however, is what causes them.
Some instances of rogue waves have been explained by the interactions of normal wave
patterns with ocean currents. Scientists believe that it is possible for waves to reach the heights
described when they come into contact with strong ocean currents. The wave heights increase
significantly when a normal wave reaches a current head on. In other words, the wave is built
up by the power of the current. This explanation was first proposed after scientists observed a
high incidence of rogue waves in the ocean surrounding the southern tip of Africa. In fact,
since 1990, at least twenty ships have encountered the waves, which reportedly reached up to
190 feet. The waves are thought to be caused by wave interactions with the strong Agulhas
Current, which runs southbound along the east coast of the continent.
Ocean currents may be responsible for rogue waves in some parts of the world, but scientists
have confirmed their existence even in areas that are not affected by strong currents. In those
cases, scientists think that the waves are caused by wave reinforcement. Wave reinforcement is
when two or more waves join together to form one massive wave. When the waves are joined,
each height is added to the others. For example, if a ten-foot wave comes into contact with a
fifteen-foot wave, the resulting wave will be twenty-five feet tall. According to some evidence,
it is possible that many waves can join together, which would create rogue waves. Scientists
still do not understand which circumstances cause wave reinforcement, but many propose that
the reason rogue waves appear suddenly is because they are formed by multiple smaller waves
randomly.
Question 1. The passage mainly discusses .
A. the theories of how rogue waves are formed
B. instances of rogue waves that have been explained
C. the increasingly high waves
D. the circumstances causing wave reinforcement
Question 2. Why does the author mention tsunamis?
A. To explain why rogue waves cannot be predicted
B. To describe the similar mechanism that causes rogue waves
C. To note that rogue waves and tsunamis are unrelated
D. To show that rogue waves are comparable to tsunamis
Question 3. Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. Rogue waves can appear unexpectedly in calm waters.
B. Scientists confirmed that rogue waves actually exist only recently.
C. Rogue waves and tsunamis are mostly undetectable in deep water.
D. Rogue waves can reach remarkable heights.
Question 4. The author uses the Agulhas Current as an example of .

A. how currents become stronger through their contact with ocean waves
B. how multiple waves are built up by ocean currents
C. a current that flows in the northern region of Africa
D. a current that does not affect the wave height in the region
Question 5. The phrase “come into contact with” in the second paragraph mostly means
.
A. come in B. enter C. meet D. make up
Question 6. The author discusses wave reinforcement in order to .
A. propose another theory for what causes rogue waves
B. suggest that ocean currents cannot be responsible for rogue waves
C. demonstrate how rogue waves are created closer to land
D. explain how multiple waves are able to interact at sea
Question 7. The word “which” in the third paragraph refers to .
 A. some evidence B. many waves joining together
C. creating rogue waves D. wave reinforcement
Question 8. Which of the following is given definition in the passage?
A. Rogue waves B. Personal accounts C. Wave patterns D. Ocean currents

PASSAGE 31
The walnut tree produces wood that is used for countless purposes, and is considered the finest
wood in the world. The wood is easy to work with, yet it is very hard and durable—and when
it is polished, it produces a rich, dark luster. It also shrinks and swells less than any other
wood, which makes it especially desirable for fine furniture, flooring, and even gun stocks.
In fact, just about every part of the walnut is unusually hard and strong. The nut of the tree is
encased inside a very hard shell, which itself is enclosed in a leathery outer covering called a
husk. It requires real effort to break through those layers to get at the tasty meat inside.
Yet every part of the walnut is useful to people. The outer husk produces a dark reddish stain
that is hard to remove from the hands of the person, who opens the nut, and this pigment is
widely used in dyes and wood stains. The inner shell is used as an abrasive to clean jet
engines. And the meat of the nut is extensively used in cooking, ice cream, flavorings—and
just eaten raw.
Walnut trees exude a chemical into the soil near their roots which can be poisonous to some
trees and shrubs. Fruit trees, for example, will not survive if planted too close to a walnut.
Many other plants, such as maple trees or ivy, are not affected by the walnut’s presence, and
are well-suited to grow in its vicinity.
Question 1. The underlined word “It” in the first paragraph refers to .
A. walnut tree B. walnut wood C. furniture D. flooring
Question 2. The walnut tree is believed to produce .
A. the best wood in the world B. the most delicious meat for cooking
C. poisonous roots for people D. some plants such as maple trees or ivy
Question 3. As used in the passage, the underlined word “pigment” most nearly means .
A. colour B. meat C. fruitD. fragrance
Question 4. The author of the passage probably believes that .
A. walnut trees are endangered. B. people should recycle more.
C. people should grow walnut trees if possible. D. maple trees are not good for furniture
making.
Question 5. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Trees are used for many things. B. Maple trees grow well with walnuts.
C. Walnuts can kill other trees. D. Walnut trees are valuable when planted correctly.
PASSAGE 32
The Sahara Desert is the world’s largest hot desert. The Sahara is in North Africa and is as
large as the United States. Many people think that an area like this has no animals or plant life,
but they are incorrect. In fact, the Sahara Desert has many different ‘ecoregions’. Each
ecoregion ha different plants and animals living there. The biggest ecoregion is called ‘Sahara
Desert ecoregion’. In this area, the climate is extremely dry and extremely hot. The landscape
is sandy and dusty with many high dunes.
Because the Sahara Desert ecoregion is so hot and dry, there are very few plants and
animals. Scientists estimate that there are only 500 species of plants. This is not very much
when thinking of how enormous the region is. These plants include acacia trees, plants, spiny
shrubs, and grasses. The Sahara is also home to 70 species of mammals. Twenty of these are
large mammals. Thre are about 90 species of birds and around 100 reptiles.
The biggest threat to plants and animals in this environment is drying up. Because of this,
plants have ability to recover their health after their leaves have dried out completely. Animals
can lose 30-60% of their body mass and still survive. Most animals do not get their water from
drinking like other ecosystem. Instead, they have adapted to get their water through metabolic
processes. This is why they can survive in a place like Sahara Desert ecosystem.
Question 1. What is the text mostly about?
A. Location of the Sahara desert. B. Hot weather of the Sahara Desert.
C. How animals survive on this Desert. D. The Sahara Desert and its ecosystem.
Question 2. Which of the following is TRUE?
A. The Sahara Desert has no animals or plants. B. It is the second largest desert.
C. It is in North Africa. D. It is in the United States.
Question 3. In paragraph 1, the word they refers to
A. people B. plants C. animals D. ecoregions
Question 4. In paragraph 2, the word estimate is closest in meaning to
A. confirm B. calculate C. formulate D. participate
Question 5. All of the following are true about the Sahara Desert EXCEPT
A. there are abot five hundred types of plants. B. seventy species of mammals can be found
there
C. it is home to about ninety species of birds D. fewewr than 100 reptiles are found there
Question 6. Why can animals and plants survive in the Sahara Desert?
A. They try to reduce the water intake. B. They get water from the irrigation system.
C. They get water through metabolic process. D. They don’t really need water for a long
time.

PASSAGE 33
Amphibians are an animal group includes frogs, toads, salamanders and newts. The animals
live in and out of the water. The number of amphibians on our planet is declining rapidly in
both local mass extinctions and population crashes. This is a cause ofr concern as many
scientists believe that humans are responsible.
Since the 1980s, scientists have noticed a decline in amphibian populations. Although
many animals are affected by humans, amphibians have been hit particularly hard. Some
scientists believe this is because of their two-stage life cycle. Unlike most animals, amphibians
live their lives in two distinct stages. The first is aquatic and the second is terrestrial. This
means amphibians are sensitive to environmental changes in the water and on land. They also
have permeable skin, which means that toxins and chemicals can easily get into their bodies.
At first, some scientists did not believe that human pollution was the cause for changes in
amphibian populations. These scientists believed that every species on Earth goes through
natural cycles and changes and that there was not enough long-term data to prove that humans
were the problem. In recent years, this has changed. Almost all biologists are concerned about
the decline in amphibian populations. They are worried not only because many amphibians
may go extinct, but also because these extinctions will affect other plants and animals in
ecosystems. They believe that the decline in amphibian populations is a warning to humans to
stop polluting and clean up Earth.
Question 1. Which title best summarizes the main idea of the passage?
A. Endangered reptiles B. Endangered amphibians
C. Amphibian life cycle D. Amphibians and reptiles
Question 2. According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE?
A. The number of amphibians is decreasing rapidly.
B. The number of amphibians is increasing.
C. The number of amphibians is going up.
D. The number of amphibians staying constant.
Question 3. In paragraph 2, the word noticed is closest in meaning to
A. studied B. analysed C. become aware of D. started to work on
Question 4. In paragraph 2, the word they refers to
A. scientists B. humans C. animals D. amphibians
Question 5. According the passage, which of the following is TRUE about amphibians?
A. First they live on land, then in the water. B. First they live in the water, then on land.
C. They mainly live in water. D. They mainly live on land.
Question 6. In paragraph 2, the word toxins is closest in meaning to
A. poisonous substances B. tonic subtances
C. essential minerals D. essential vitamins
Question 7. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Amphibians contribute greatly to biodiversity.
B. All amphibians will go extinct in the near future.
C. A clean environment may help to protect amphibians from extinction.
D. Protecting amphibians is the responsibility of all people on Earth.