Okay, here are 50 more MCQs specifically for Section II: Domain Specific Subject (Diploma

in Computer Engineering / IT / ICT), with answers following each question.

Section II: Domain Specific Subject (50 MCQs)

1. Which of the following is an example of an output device?
a) Mouse
b) Scanner
c) Projector
d) Microphone
Answer: c) Projector
2. What does RAM stand for in computer memory?
a) Read Access Memory
b) Random Access Memory
c) Real Access Memory
d) Rapid Application Memory
Answer: b) Random Access Memory
3. Which type of memory is volatile, meaning its contents are lost when the power is turned
off?
a) ROM
b) Hard Disk Drive (HDD)
c) RAM
d) Solid State Drive (SSD)
Answer: c) RAM
4. The BIOS (Basic Input/Output System) is typically stored in which type of memory?
a) RAM
b) Cache Memory
c) ROM
d) Virtual Memory
Answer: c) ROM
5. What is the main function of the Motherboard in a computer system?
a) To store all user data.
b) To process complex calculations.
c) To connect and allow communication between all hardware components.
d) To display output on the screen.
Answer: c) To connect and allow communication between all hardware components.
6. Which generation of computers used vacuum tubes?
a) First Generation
b) Second Generation
c) Third Generation
d) Fourth Generation1
Answer: a) First Generation
7. What is the smallest unit of data in a computer?
a) Byte
b) Kilobyte
c) Bit
d) Nibble
Answer: c) Bit
8. Which of the following is a system software?
a) Microsoft Word
b) Google Chrome
c) Operating System
d) Adobe Photoshop
Answer: c) Operating System
9. What is multitasking in an Operating System?
a) Running one program at a time.
b) Executing multiple programs concurrently.
c) Printing multiple documents.
d) Storing multiple files.
Answer: b) Executing multiple programs concurrently.
10. Which OS is known for its open-source nature and command-line interface flexibility?
a) Windows
b) macOS
c) Linux
d) Android
Answer: c) Linux
11. What is the process of loading the operating system into the computer's memory called?
a) Compiling
b) Debugging
c) Booting
d) Installing
Answer: c) Booting
12. Which of the following is a type of user interface that uses graphics, icons, and menus?
a) Command Line Interface (CLI)
b) Text-Based Interface
c) Graphical User Interface (GUI)
d) API
Answer: c) Graphical User Interface (GUI)
13. What is the full form of DNS in networking?
a) Dynamic Network Service
b) Domain Name System
c) Digital Naming Structure
d) Data Node Server
Answer: b) Domain Name System
14. Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for reliable end-to-end data delivery?
a) Network Layer
b) Data Link Layer
c) Transport Layer
d) Application Layer
Answer: c) Transport Layer
15. What is the purpose of an IP address?
a) To identify a specific website.
b) To uniquely identify a device on a network.
c) To secure network communication.
d) To boost Wi-Fi signal strength.
Answer: b) To uniquely identify a device on a network.
16. Which network device connects different networks and forwards data packets between
them?
a) Hub
b) Switch
c) Router
d) Repeater
Answer: c) Router
17. Which protocol is used to send email?
a) HTTP
b) FTP
c) SMTP
d) POP3
Answer: c) SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol)
18. What is the maximum number of bits in an IPv4 address?
a) 8 bits
b) 16 bits
c) 32 bits
d) 64 bits
Answer: c) 32 bits
19. Which network topology is often called a backbone network?
a) Star
b) Ring
c) Bus
d) Mesh
Answer: c) Bus
20. What is a "packet" in computer networking?
a) A small program.
b) A unit of data transmitted over a network.
c) A network device.
d) A type of network cable.
Answer: b) A unit of data transmitted over a network.
21. Which programming construct allows a block of code to be executed repeatedly?
a) Conditional statement
b) Function
c) Loop
d) Variable declaration
Answer: c) Loop
22. In programming, what is a "variable"?
a) A fixed value in a program.
b) A named storage location that holds a value.
c) A command that performs an action.
d) A type of error in the code.
Answer: b) A named storage location that holds a value.
23. Which of the following is a high-level programming language?
a) Assembly Language
b) Machine Language
c) C++
d) Binary Code
Answer: c) C++
24. What does 'IDE' stand for in software development?
a) Integrated Development Environment
b) Interactive Design Editor
c) Internet Data Exchange
d) Internal Debugging Engine
Answer: a) Integrated Development Environment
25. What is the purpose of a compiler?
a) To execute the program line by line.
b) To convert source code into machine code before execution.
c) To find and fix errors in the code during runtime.
d) To display output on the screen.
Answer: b) To convert source code into machine code before execution.
26. Which data type is used to store true/false values?
a) Integer
b) String
c) Float
d) Boolean
Answer: d) Boolean
27. What is an "array" in programming?
a) A single variable that holds one value.
b) A collection of items of the same data type stored in contiguous memory locations.
c) A function used to perform calculations.
d) A loop construct.
Answer: b) A collection of items of the same data type stored in contiguous memory
locations.
28. In OOP, what is "inheritance"?
a) Bundling data and methods into a single unit.
b) The ability of an object to take on many forms.
c) A mechanism where one class acquires the properties and behaviors of another class.
d) Hiding the internal implementation details.
Answer: c) A mechanism where one class acquires the properties and behaviors of another
class.
29. What is the primary role of a web browser?
a) To host websites.
b) To create web pages.
c) To retrieve and display web content from servers.
d) To manage databases.
Answer: c) To retrieve and display web content from servers.
30. Which language is used for structuring content on the web?
a) CSS
b) JavaScript
c) HTML
d) Python
Answer: c) HTML
31. What does CSS stand for?
a) Computer Style Sheets
b) Cascading Style Sheets
c) Creative Style Solutions
d) Common Style Syntax
Answer: b) Cascading Style Sheets
32. Which language is primarily used for adding interactivity and dynamic behavior to web
pages?
a) HTML
b) CSS
c) JavaScript
d) SQL
Answer: c) JavaScript
33. What is the role of a web server?
a) To browse the internet.
b) To store and deliver web pages to clients.
c) To design graphical interfaces.
d) To protect against malware.
Answer: b) To store and deliver web pages to clients.
34. In a client-server architecture, which one typically requests services?
a) Server
b) Client
c) Database
d) Router
Answer: b) Client
35. Which of the following SQL commands is used to retrieve data from a database?
a) INSERT
b) UPDATE
c) DELETE
d) SELECT
Answer: d) SELECT
36. What is a "tuple" in a relational database context?
a) A column in a table.
b) A row in a table.
c) A database schema.
d) A primary key.
Answer: b) A row in a table.
37. Which concept ensures that a database transaction is either fully completed or
completely undone?
a) Atomicity
b) Consistency
c) Isolation
d) Durability
Answer: a) Atomicity
38. What is the process of organizing the columns and tables of a relational database to
minimize data redundancy called?
a) Indexing
b) Querying
c) Normalization
d) Hashing
Answer: c) Normalization
39. Which of the following is a non-relational database type?
a) MySQL
b) PostgreSQL
c) MongoDB
d) Oracle
Answer: c) MongoDB (A NoSQL database)
40. What is "phishing"?
a) A type of computer virus.
b) A technique for creating secure network connections.
c) A form of cyberattack where attackers attempt to trick individuals into revealing sensitive
information.
d) A method for encrypting data.
Answer: c) A form of cyberattack where attackers attempt to trick individuals into revealing
sensitive information.
41. What is the primary purpose of antivirus software?
a) To speed up internet Browse.
b) To protect against, detect, and remove malicious software.
c) To create backups of data.
d) To manage network traffic.
Answer: b) To protect against, detect, and remove malicious software.
42. Which encryption method uses a single key for both encryption and decryption?
a) Asymmetric Encryption
b) Symmetric Encryption
c) Hashing
d) Digital Signature
Answer: b) Symmetric Encryption
43. What does "VPN" stand for in cybersecurity?
a) Virtual Private Network
b) Verified Public Network
c) Virtual Personal Node
d) Volatile Protocol Navigation
Answer: a) Virtual Private Network
44. In the Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC), which phase involves writing the actual
code?
a) Requirements Gathering
b) Design
c) Implementation/Coding
d) Testing
Answer: c) Implementation/Coding
45. Which type of testing checks if the entire system meets the user's requirements?
a) Unit Testing
b) Integration Testing
c) System Testing
d) Acceptance Testing
Answer: d) Acceptance Testing
46. What is "cloud computing"?
a) Using local servers for all data storage.
b) Delivering on-demand computing services—from applications to storage and processing
power—over the Internet.
c) A type of weather forecasting software.
d) A method for building desktop applications.
Answer: b) Delivering on-demand computing services—from applications to storage and
processing power—over the Internet.
47. Which of the following is a service model of cloud computing?
a) Hardware as a Service (HaaS)
b) Data as a Service (DaaS)
c) Platform as a Service (PaaS)
d) Network as a Service (NaaS)
Answer: c) Platform as a Service (PaaS)
48. What does "IoT" commonly refer to in technology?
a) Internet of Text
b) Internet of Things
c) Information of Technology
d) Integrated Online Tools
Answer: b) Internet of Things
49. Which concept allows machines to learn from data without being explicitly
programmed?
a) Robotics
b) Machine Learning
c) Quantum Computing
d) Virtual Reality
Answer: b) Machine Learning
50. What is the primary goal of data compression?
a) To increase the size of data for better security.
b) To reduce the amount of storage space needed for data.
c) To speed up data processing.
d) To make data unreadable.
Answer: b) To reduce the amount of storage space needed for data.
Okay, here are 10 more MCQs specifically for Section IA: Reading Comprehension, based on a
passage.

Section IA: Reading Comprehension (10 MCQs)

Passage:

The discovery of penicillin by Alexander Fleming in 1928 marked a pivotal moment in medical history.
Fleming, a Scottish physician and microbiologist, noticed that a mold, Penicillium notatum, had
contaminated a petri dish containing Staphylococcus bacteria. Surprisingly, around the mold, there
was a clear ring where the bacteria had failed to grow. He deduced that the mold was producing a
substance that inhibited bacterial growth. Although Fleming published his findings, he faced
challenges in isolating and purifying the active compound, and it wasn't until the early 1940s that
Howard Florey, Ernst Chain, and Norman Heatley successfully developed methods for mass-
producing penicillin. This collaborative effort transformed medicine, providing an effective treatment
for many bacterial infections that had previously been fatal, such as pneumonia, scarlet fever, and
tuberculosis. Penicillin's widespread use during World War II significantly reduced mortality rates
among injured soldiers. The subsequent development of various antibiotics has continued to
revolutionize healthcare, though the rise of antibiotic resistance now poses a new challenge.

1. Who is credited with the initial discovery of penicillin?

a) Howard Florey

b) Ernst Chain

c) Alexander Fleming

d) Norman Heatley

Answer: c) Alexander Fleming

2. What did Fleming observe in the petri dish that led to his discovery?

a) The Staphylococcus bacteria growing vigorously near the mold.

b) A clear ring around the mold where bacteria did not grow.

c) The mold itself was actively consuming the bacteria.

d) The Penicillium notatum mold was growing rapidly.

Answer: b) A clear ring around the mold where bacteria did not grow.

3. What was the primary effect of the substance produced by the mold?

a) It promoted fungal growth.

b) It enhanced bacterial reproduction.

c) It inhibited bacterial growth.

d) It changed the color of the petri dish.

Answer: c) It inhibited bacterial growth.

4. According to the passage, why was Fleming initially challenged in developing penicillin for
widespread use?

a) He lacked funding for research.

b) He faced difficulties in isolating and purifying the active compound.

c) The medical community did not believe his findings.

d) The mold was too rare to cultivate.

Answer: b) He faced difficulties in isolating and purifying the active compound.

5. Who were the individuals responsible for the mass production of penicillin in the early 1940s?

a) Alexander Fleming alone.

b) Howard Florey, Ernst Chain, and Norman Heatley.

c) Only Howard Florey and Ernst Chain.

d) Only Norman Heatley.

Answer: b) Howard Florey, Ernst Chain, and Norman Heatley.

6. Penicillin's widespread use during World War II resulted in:

a) An increase in viral infections.

b) A significant reduction in mortality rates among injured soldiers.

c) The development of new types of warfare.

d) A decline in surgical procedures.

Answer: b) A significant reduction in mortality rates among injured soldiers.

7. Which of the following diseases is mentioned as being treatable by penicillin?

a) Common cold

b) Pneumonia

c) Malaria

d) Cancer

Answer: b) Pneumonia

8. What does the term "pivotal" mean in the context of "pivotal moment in medical history"?

a) Insignificant

b) Unimportant

c) Crucial or central

d) Minor

Answer: c) Crucial or central

9. The passage suggests that despite the success of antibiotics, a new challenge has emerged. What
is it?

a) The high cost of production.

b) The difficulty in distributing antibiotics globally.

c) The rise of antibiotic resistance.

d) Ethical concerns about antibiotic use.

Answer: c) The rise of antibiotic resistance.

10. What type of passage is this primarily?

a) Literary

b) Narrative

c) Factual

d) Persuasive

Answer: c) Factual

Okay, here are 15 more MCQs specifically for Section IB: Vocabulary and Verbal Ability, with
answers provided after each question.

Section IB: Vocabulary and Verbal Ability (15 MCQs)

1. Choose the synonym for "Venerate".

a) Despise

b) Worship

c) Criticize

d) Ignore

Answer: b) Worship

2. What is the antonym of "Ameliorate"?

a) Improve

b) Worsen

c) Alleviate

d) Enhance

Answer: b) Worsen
3. Choose the correct word to complete the sentence: "The jury found the defendant innocent as
there was insufficient _________ to prove guilt."

a) evident

b) evidence

c) evidently

d) evidential

Answer: b) evidence

4. Rearrange the following parts to form a meaningful sentence:

P: on the economy

Q: the new tax policy

R: is expected to have

S: a significant impact

a) QSRP

b) RQSP

c) QRSP

d) PSQR

Answer: c) QRSP (The new tax policy is expected to have a significant impact on the economy.)

5. Choose the synonym for "Ephemeral".

a) Lasting

b) Permanent

c) Transitory

d) Endless

Answer: c) Transitory

6. What is the antonym of "Mundane"?

a) Ordinary

b) Common

c) Exciting

d) Routine

Answer: c) Exciting

7. Choose the correct word to complete the sentence: "Despite facing numerous setbacks, she
remained _________ in her pursuit of success."

a) hesitant
b) resilient

c) fragile

d) yielding

Answer: b) resilient

8. Rearrange the following parts to form a meaningful sentence:

P: for developing countries

Q: sustainable development

R: is a crucial goal

S: especially

a) QRSP

b) RQPS

c) PSQR

d) QSRP

Answer: a) QRSP (Sustainable development is a crucial goal especially for developing countries.)

9. Choose the synonym for "Concur".

a) Disagree

b) Oppose

c) Agree

d) Object

Answer: c) Agree

10. What is the antonym of "Benevolent"?

a) Kind

b) Generous

c) Malicious

d) Compassionate

Answer: c) Malicious

11. Choose the correct word to complete the sentence: "The company's innovative approach helped
it _________ its competitors in the market."

a) supersede

b) supplicate

c) submerge
d) support

Answer: a) supersede

12. Rearrange the following parts to form a meaningful sentence:

P: to protect

Q: it is our duty

R: the environment

S: for future generations

a) QRPS

b) QPSR

c) RSPQ

d) PQRS

Answer: b) QPSR (It is our duty to protect the environment for future generations.)

13. Choose the synonym for "Mitigate".

a) Aggravate

b) Intensify

c) Lessen

d) Worsen

Answer: c) Lessen

14. What is the antonym of "Paucity"?

a) Scarcity

b) Abundance

c) Shortage

d) Dearth

Answer: b) Abundance

15. Choose the correct word to complete the sentence: "The detective was known for his _________
ability to solve complex cases."

a) mundane

b) astute

c) trivial

d) clumsy

Answer: b) astute
Okay, here are 25 more MCQs specifically for Section III: General Test, covering Numerical Ability,
Quantitative Reasoning, Logical & Analytical Reasoning, General Knowledge, Current Affairs, and
General Awareness.

Section III: General Test (25 MCQs)

1. (Numerical Ability) What is 15% of 200?

a) 15

b) 20

c) 30

d) 45

Answer: c) 30

2. (Quantitative Reasoning) A train 120 meters long is running at a speed of 60 km/hr. How long will
it take to cross a pole?

a) 7.2 seconds

b) 8 seconds

c) 9 seconds

d) 10 seconds

Answer: a) 7.2 seconds (Speed in m/s = 60 * 1000 / 3600 = 50/3 m/s. Time = Distance/Speed = 120 /
(50/3) = 120 * 3 / 50 = 360 / 50 = 7.2 seconds)

3. (Logical Reasoning) Find the next term in the series: J, L, N, P, ?

a) Q

b) R

c) S

d) T

Answer: b) R (Each letter skips one alphabet: J-K-L, L-M-N, N-O-P, P-Q-R)

4. (Logical Reasoning) If 'WATER' is coded as 'XBUFS', how is 'FIRE' coded?

a) GJQF

b) GJSF

c) GHPF

d) GIFE

Answer: a) GJQF (Each letter moves one step forward: F+1=G, I+1=J, R+1=S, E+1=F. So FIRE -> GJSF.
Let's recheck the example. W+1=X, A+1=B, T+1=U, E+1=F, R+1=S. So 'XBUFS' is correct. So, for FIRE, it
should be GJSF)
Self-correction: My previous calculation of 'GJSF' is correct for the example pattern.

Answer: a) GJSF

5. (General Knowledge) The largest democratic country in the world is:

a) USA

b) India

c) China

d) Canada

Answer: b) India

6. (General Knowledge) Which of the following is NOT a classical dance form of India?

a) Kathak

b) Bharatanatyam

c) Bhangra

d) Odissi

Answer: c) Bhangra (Bhangra is a folk dance from Punjab)

7. (Current Affairs - India) As of June 2025, which city in India is widely recognized as the "Silicon
Valley of India"?

a) Mumbai

b) Bengaluru

c) Hyderabad

d) Chennai

Answer: b) Bengaluru

8. (General Awareness) World Environment Day is celebrated annually on:

a) June 5th

b) April 22nd

c) March 8th

d) July 11th

Answer: a) June 5th

9. (Numerical Ability) A and B can do a work in 10 days, B and C in 15 days, and C and A in 20 days. In
how many days can C alone do the work?

a) 30 days

b) 60 days

c) 120 days
d) 40 days

Answer: c) 120 days (LCM of 10, 15, 20 is 60. A+B=6 units/day, B+C=4 units/day, C+A=3 units/day.
2(A+B+C) = 13 units/day. A+B+C = 6.5 units/day. C = (A+B+C) - (A+B) = 6.5 - 6 = 0.5 units/day. Time for
C = 60 / 0.5 = 120 days.)

10. (Logical Reasoning) Select the figure that is different from the others.

(Imagine four options: A circle, a square, a triangle, and a pentagon where one side is missing.)

a) Circle

b) Square

c) Triangle

d) Pentagon with one side missing

Answer: d) Pentagon with one side missing (Others are closed geometric shapes)

11. (General Knowledge) The chemical formula for water is:

a) CO2

b) O2

c) H2O

d) NaCl

Answer: c) H2O

12. (General Awareness) The phenomenon of 'Global Warming' is primarily attributed to the increase
in which gas in the atmosphere?

a) Oxygen

b) Nitrogen

c) Carbon Dioxide

d) Methane

Answer: c) Carbon Dioxide

13. (Quantitative Reasoning) If the perimeter of a square is 48 cm, what is its area?

a) 144 sq cm

b) 12 sq cm

c) 24 sq cm

d) 96 sq cm

Answer: a) 144 sq cm (Side = 48/4 = 12 cm. Area = 12*12 = 144 sq cm)

14. (Logical Reasoning) In a row of students, if John is 10th from the left and 15th from the right, how
many students are there in the row?
a) 24

b) 25

c) 26

d) 23

Answer: a) 24 (Total = Left Position + Right Position - 1 = 10 + 15 - 1 = 24)

15. (General Knowledge) The Nobel Peace Prize is awarded in which city?

a) Stockholm

b) Oslo

c) Geneva

d) Copenhagen

Answer: b) Oslo

16. (Current Affairs - India) As of June 2025, which Indian state recently inaugurated a new
international airport aimed at boosting tourism and trade in its region?

Note: This is a speculative current affairs question. The actual answer would depend on recent
developments.

a) Uttar Pradesh

b) Goa

c) Gujarat

d) Kerala

Answer: c) Gujarat (Hypothetical for a 2025 event, given the location context)

17. (General Awareness) The first woman in space was:

a) Sally Ride

b) Valentina Tereshkova

c) Kalpana Chawla

d) Svetlana Savitskaya

Answer: b) Valentina Tereshkova

18. (Numerical Ability) A sum of Rs. 10,000 is invested at 5% simple interest per annum. What will be
the interest earned after 3 years?

a) Rs. 1,000

b) Rs. 1,500

c) Rs. 2,000

d) Rs. 2,500
Answer: b) Rs. 1,500 (Interest = (P * R * T) / 100 = (10000 * 5 * 3) / 100 = 1500)

19. (Logical Reasoning) Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the
second term is related to the first term: Book1 : Author :: Painting : ?

a) Colour

b) Brush

c) Painter

d) Canvas

Answer: c) Painter

20. (General Knowledge) Which of the following is the highest mountain peak in India?

a) Mount Everest

b) Kanchenjunga

c) Nanda Devi

d) K2

Answer: b) Kanchenjunga (K2 is higher but disputed as fully within India; Everest is in Nepal)

21. (General Awareness) The 'Blue Revolution' is associated with an increase in the production of:

a) Agriculture

b) Dairy products

c) Fish

d) Oilseeds

Answer: c) Fish

22. (Quantitative Reasoning) A man walks 5 km East, then turns right and walks 4 km. Then turns left
and walks 3 km. In which direction is he from the starting point?

a) North-East

b) South-East

c) North-West

d) South-West

Answer: b) South-East

23. (General Knowledge) The longest river in the world is:

a) Amazon River

b) Nile River

c) Yangtze River

d) Mississippi River
Answer: b) Nile River

24. (Current Affairs - Global) As of June 2025, which international organization is currently leading
efforts for global climate change mitigation under the Paris Agreement?

a) World Health Organization (WHO)

b) United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)

c) World Bank

d) International Monetary Fund (IMF)

Answer: b) United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)

25. (Logical Reasoning) If 'A' is the mother of 'B', 'B' is the sister of 'C', and 'C' is the son of 'D', how is
'D' related to 'A'?

a) Son

b) Daughter

c) Husband

d) Wife

Answer: c) Husband (A is mother of B, B is sister of C. So A is mother of C. C is son of D. So D is father

of C. Thus, D is husband of A.)

Okay, focusing specifically on Current Indian Affairs, here are 15 more MCQs. Please remember that
these are hypothetical events and developments plausible for June 2025, as I do not have access to
real-time future news.

Section III: General Test (Current Indian Affairs) - 15 MCQs

1. (Politics & Governance) In early 2025, the Indian Parliament passed a landmark bill aimed at
significant reforms in the criminal justice system. Which set of existing laws did this bill primarily seek
to replace?

a) IPC, CrPC, and Indian Evidence Act

b) RTI Act and Lokpal Act

c) IT Act and Cyber Security Act

d) Companies Act and Insolvency Code

Answer: a) IPC, CrPC, and Indian Evidence Act (Hypothetical, building on real discussions around
replacing colonial-era laws)

2. (Economy & Finance) The Indian government launched a new initiative in May 2025 to boost
manufacturing and exports in specific sectors, offering production-linked incentives. Which of the
following sectors was NOT part of this new phase?
a) Advanced Electronics

b) Electric Vehicles and Components

c) Traditional Handloom Industry

d) Green Hydrogen Manufacturing

Answer: c) Traditional Handloom Industry (Hypothetical, PLI schemes focus on modern industrial
sectors, though handloom has other support schemes)

3. (Science & Technology) ISRO successfully conducted a critical test flight of its reusable launch
vehicle (RLV-TD) demonstrator in April 2025, marking a significant step towards future cost-effective
space access. What was the primary objective of this test?

a) Deploying a commercial satellite

b) Testing autonomous landing capabilities

c) Launching a crewed mission

d) Deep-space exploration

Answer: b) Testing autonomous landing capabilities (Hypothetical, based on ISRO's ongoing RLV
program and its test objectives)

4. (Infrastructure) The Prime Minister inaugurated a new section of the Delhi-Mumbai Expressway in
March 2025, further enhancing connectivity between the two major economic hubs. Which state did
this newly opened section predominantly pass through?

a) Uttar Pradesh

b) Madhya Pradesh

c) Haryana

d) Rajasthan

Answer: d) Rajasthan (Hypothetical, parts of the Delhi-Mumbai expressway are in Rajasthan)

5. (Social Sector) The Union Cabinet approved an expansion of the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission
(ABDM) in February 2025. This expansion primarily aims to:

a) Provide free internet access to all citizens.

b) Create a nationwide digital health infrastructure.

c) Establish new medical colleges in every district.

d) Offer direct cash transfers for health expenses.

Answer: b) Create a nationwide digital health infrastructure (Hypothetical, but aligns with the core
goal of ABDM)

6. (Environment) India hosted the annual meeting of the "International Solar Alliance (ISA)" in
January 2025, emphasizing collective efforts towards solar energy deployment. Which city served as
the venue for this significant event?
a) Bengaluru

b) New Delhi

c) Ahmedabad

d) Chennai

Answer: b) New Delhi (Hypothetical, New Delhi is a common venue for such international
conferences in India)

7. (Defense & Security) The Indian Navy successfully commissioned its third indigenous stealth
destroyer of the Project 15B class in May 2025. What is the name of this newly commissioned
warship?

a) INS Chennai

b) INS Mormugao

c) INS Imphal

d) INS Visakhapatnam

Answer: c) INS Imphal (Hypothetical. INS Visakhapatnam and INS Mormugao are already
commissioned, Imphal is next in line.)

8. (Sports) Which Indian athlete created history by winning a gold medal in the World Athletics
Indoor Championships in Glasgow, Scotland, in March 2025?

a) Neeraj Chopra (Javelin Throw)

b) Avinash Sable (3000m Steeplechase)

c) Murali Sreeshankar (Long Jump)

d) Jyothi Yarraji (Hurdles)

Answer: d) Jyothi Yarraji (Hypothetical, but she has been performing well in hurdles.)

9. (Education) The University Grants Commission (UGC) unveiled a new framework in April 2025 for
integrating vocational education with mainstream higher education. This initiative primarily aims to:

a) Reduce the number of engineering colleges.

b) Enhance employability and practical skills of graduates.

c) Introduce a new language in the curriculum.

d) Promote rote learning among students.

Answer: b) Enhance employability and practical skills of graduates (Hypothetical, but aligns with NEP
2020 objectives)

10. (Banking & Finance) The Reserve Bank of India introduced new guidelines for digital lending
platforms in April 2025, primarily to address concerns related to:

a) Interest rates and transparency

b) Physical branch expansion

c) ATM network security

d) Rural credit disbursement

Answer: a) Interest rates and transparency (Hypothetical, but digital lending regulations are an
ongoing focus for RBI)

11. (Art & Culture) Which Indian state was awarded the "Best Tourism State" award at the National
Tourism Awards 2025, for its efforts in promoting sustainable and experiential tourism?

a) Rajasthan

b) Kerala

c) Madhya Pradesh

d) Gujarat

Answer: b) Kerala (Hypothetical, but Kerala consistently ranks high in tourism awards)

12. (Legal) The Supreme Court of India delivered a significant verdict in May 2025, clarifying the
scope of fundamental rights concerning online speech and social media content regulation. This
verdict primarily dealt with issues under which Article of the Constitution?

a) Article 14 (Equality)

b) Article 19(1)(a) (Freedom of Speech and Expression)

c) Article 21 (Right to Life and Personal Liberty)

d) Article 32 (Right to Constitutional Remedies)

Answer: b) Article 19(1)(a) (Hypothetical, as online speech and regulation are ongoing legal
discussions.)

13. (Energy) India’s largest floating solar power project, inaugurated in March 2025, is located in
which state?

a) Telangana

b) Kerala

c) Uttar Pradesh

d) Maharashtra

Answer: a) Telangana (Hypothetical, but Telangana has seen significant floating solar projects)

14. (Agriculture) The Union Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare launched a new digital
platform in April 2025 to provide farmers with real-time weather information and market prices.
What is the name of this platform?

a) Kisan Darshan

b) AgriNet

c) Samriddhi Farmer App

d) FarmConnect
Answer: c) Samriddhi Farmer App (Hypothetical, a plausible name for a government agri-tech
initiative)

15. (Urban Development) Which Indian city was recognized by the UN-Habitat program in May 2025
for its innovative public transport system and efforts towards reducing urban pollution?

a) Ahmedabad

b) Pune

c) Surat

d) Kochi

Answer: c) Surat (Hypothetical, but Surat has been recognized for urban development and
sustainability efforts)