Technical – Final Examination Questionnaire

Embraer Technical TEST

Examination Reference Embraer E175 SA.B1.B.TQ1 TEST
Examination Duration 120 minutes

Number of Question 100

Pass Mark 75%

The following papers and/or reference material is permitted during the examination
• Questionnaire
• Answer Sheet
• Blank sheet of paper
• QRH
Answer sheet completion guidelines
The following sections have to be completed by the trainee
No Notes should be written on the Questionnaire
• Test ID
• Last Name (all Capital)
• First Name (all Capital)
• Signature
• Date
Answer Marking
A filled circle should indicate the chosen answer
Ex: 1) (a) ● (c) (d)
Change of Answer marking
The answer to be corrected should be crossed and the new one indicated by a filled circle
Ex: 1) (a) ● (c) ●

Upon Completion of the Answer sheet, the Questionnaire, the Answer sheet and the extra sheet of paper must
be returned to the instructor overviewing the examination.

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 Technical – Final Examination Questionnaire

Embraer E170 SA.B1.B.TQ1 TEST

Which unit is responsible for controlling the autopilot, autothrottle, data acquisition, display control
1)
functions, flight director among other?
A) CCD
B) MAU
C) IC-600
D) EDS
The Concept used to design and operate the airplane assumed that while in flight, all systems are
2)
normal when:
A) Overhead, main, glareshield and control pedestal panels have no lights on
B) No aural warnings are being issued
C) The selector knobs are positioned at twelve o’clock
D) All of the above
3) Which of the following components in NOT a part of the Electronic Display Systems (EDS)?
A) Five Display Units (DU)
B) Two Cursor Control Devices (CCD)
C) Three Reversionary Panels
D) One Guidance Panel
4) How many function keys does each CCD have
A) Three function keys
B) Four function keys
C) Two function keys
D) Six function keys
5) Engine Bleed Valve is commanded open when the following conditions occur:
A) Bleed switch AUTO - Bleed available - No fire - No leak
B) Bleed switch AUTO - Bleed available - No fire - No leak - No ice conditions
C) Bleed switch AUTO - Bleed available - No leak
D) Bleed switch AUTO - Bleed available - No fire
The Air Management System will automatically shut down the affected bleed system when the
6)
following conditions occurs:
A) Leak and Fail condition
B) Leak, Overpressure or Fail condition
C) Leak, anti-ice low pressure
D) Overpressure or Fail condition
7) The recirculation fans are commanded OFF when:
A) Manual selection of the pressurization control
B) The DUMP button is released
C) One Pack is commanded OFF
D) Two Packs are commanded OFF
8) It is provided in case of pack shutdown or for smoke removal
A) Outflow Valves for cabin control
B) Dump Valves
C) Emergency Ram Air ventilation
D) Negative Pressure Relief Valve
If the pilot set in the FMS a flight altitude of 38000ft but during the flight they stay at 30000ft the
9)
differential pressure would be:
A) 7.8 PSI
B) 7.2 PSI
C) 8.8 PSI
D) 8.4 PSI

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10) What System controls the amount of hot bleed air provided from pack 2 into the mixer?
A) Air management system
B) Cabin pressure system
C) Trim air system
D) None of the above
11) The fire protection system provides fire detection and extinguishing capabilities:
A) Engines, APU, Cargo compartments, Lavatories, Landing Gear Bay
B) Engines, APU, Cargo compartments, Lavatories, Avionics Bay
C) Engines, APU, Cargo compartments, Avionics Bay
D) Engines, APU, Cargo compartments, Lavatories
12) In flight (cargo fire condition), what happens after the high rate bottle is discharged?
A) The second fire-extinguishing bottle discharges only if the fire condition persists
B) One minute later, the second fire-extinguishing bottle discharges automatically at a reduced flow
C) Five minutes later, the second fire-extinguishing bottle discharges automatically at high flow
D) Five minutes later, the second fire-extinguishing bottle discharges automatically at reduced flow
13) What condition will cause an immediate APU shutdown?
A) Fire Detection Test Button is pressed for 5 seconds
B) Fire Detection Test Button is pressed for 10 seconds
C) Fire Detection Test Button is pressed for 15 seconds
D) Fire Detection Test Button is pressed for 20 seconds
14) Under what conditions is the EICAS ADVISORY message FUEL EQUAL-XFEED OPEN displayed?
A) When the wings fuel imbalance reduces to 100lb - 45kg
B) When the wings fuel imbalance reduces to 200lb - 90kg
C) When the wings fuel imbalance reduces to 50lb - 22kg
D) When the wings fuel imbalance reduces to 150lb - 67kg
15) What feature is available to balance fuel during flight?
A) Fuel Crossfeed only
B) Crossfeed and autobalance feature
C) Fuel Crossfeed and Gravity balance
D) Gravity balance only
16) What kind of fuel pumps does each fuel tank have?
A) 1 Ejector – 1 Wing AC electric – 3 scavenge ejector – 2 DC electric (Right)
B) 1 Ejector – 3 Wing AC electric – 3 scavenge ejector – 1 DC electric (Right)
C) 1 Ejector – 1 Wing AC electric – 3 scavenge ejector – 2 DC electric (Right)
D) 1 Ejector – 1 Wing AC electric – 3 scavenge ejector – 1 DC electric (Right)
17) Which one of the following components is not powered by the hydraulic system?
A) Landing Gear
B) Flaps
C) Brakes
D) Steering
18) The Power Transfer Unit (PTU) consist of:
A) Hydraulic Pump (SYST2) driven by a Hydraulic motor installed in HYD 2
B) Hydraulic Pump (SYST1) driven by a Hydraulic motor installed in HYD 1
C) Hydraulic Pump (SYST2) driven by a Hydraulic motor installed in HYD 1
D) Hydraulic Pump (SYST1) driven by a Hydraulic motor installed in HYD 2
19) In what cases is the electrical hydraulic pump (1) activated (Ground)?
A) Flaps greater than 10° - Thrust lever set to takeoff or Ground Speed > 50kts
B) Flaps greater than 10° - Thrust lever set to takeoff or Ground Speed > 80kts
C) Flaps greater than 0° - Thrust lever set to takeoff or Ground Speed > 80kts
D) Flaps greater than 0° - Thrust lever set to takeoff or Ground Speed > 50kts

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20) What is the primary source for the Hydraulic System 1?
A) Electric Hydraulic Pump
B) Engine Driven Pump (EDP)
C) Hydraulic System Accumulator
D) All of the above
21) What abnormal condition triggers the message HYD 1 OVERHEAT on the EICAS?
A) Fluid temperature increases to 145°
B) Fluid temperature increases to 160°
C) Fluid temperature increases to 100°
D) Fire in the hydraulic reservoir
22) The ICE Detector command the wing and engine anti-ice valves to open and remain activated for:
A) 1 minute
B) 5 minutes or 3 minutes depending on configuration
C) 5 minutes or 2 minutes depending on configuration
D) 3 minutes
23) What is the purpose of the windshield heating system?
A) Anti-Ice (Windshield)
B) De-Ice and anti-fogging (Windshield)
C) Anti-ice, De-Ice, Anti fogging (Windshield)
D) Anti-Ice and anti-fogging (Windshield)
24) When is the Air Data Smart Probe heated (Auto-Mode)?
A) Engine running or airplane is airborne
B) Engine is running
C) Engine running or 1 minute after liftoff
D) Engine running or 2 minutes after liftoff
25) The wing anti-ice system tests itself during flight
A) 5 min after takeoff or at 10000ft AGL
B) 10 min after takeoff or at 10000ft AGL
C) 10 min after takeoff or at 5000ft AGL
D) 5 min after takeoff or at 5000ft AGL
26) How many weight-on-wheels (WOW) proximity sensors does the E175 have?
A) 4 sensors
B) 2 sensors
C) 8 sensors
D) 6 sensors
27) The accumulator has sufficient pressure to provide:
A) Four full-brakes applications
B) Eight full-brakes applications
C) Six full-brakes applications
D) Two full-brakes applications
28) What protections are provided during autobrake operation?
A) Anti skid
B) Touchdown
C) Locked wheel protections
D) All of the above
29) There are ______ autobrake levels of deceleration and _______ modes of autobrake control.
A) Four autobrake levels – Two modes of autobrake control
B) Two autobrake levels – Two modes of autobrake control
C) Four autobrake levels – Four modes of autobrake control
D) Two autobrake levels – Four modes of autobrake control

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30) In what condition will the RTO mode of the autobrake system be disarmed (Rejected Takeoff Mode)?

A) Brake Control System Faults detected below 40kts of wheel speed

B) WOW indication on Ground
C) Brake Control System Faults detected below 50kts of wheel speed
D) Thrust Lever Position above Idle while Autobrake is being applied
31) CYAN: Advisory operating range indicates:
A) Minimum oxygen for three crew members
B) Minimum oxygen for two crew members
C) No dispatch
D) Dispatch with portable oxygen bottle
After loss of cabin pressure, sufficient oxygen is provided for all cockpit members to permit
32)
emergency descent from 41000ft to 10000ft for: ________(with mask regulator on 100% mode).
A) 30 minutes
B) 22 minutes
C) 20 minutes
D) 15 minutes
33) To restore the boom microphone after using the oxygen mask:
A) Oxygen mask stowage box is closed
B) Oxygen mask stowage box is closed, and the TEST/RESET switch is pressed
C) Press the TEST/RESET switch
D) All of the above
34) What is the minimum oxygen pressure for dispatch (Pilot, Co-Pilot, Observer)?
A) 1150 PSI
B) 1500 PSI
C) 1250 PSI
D) 1100 PSI
35) The Flight Control System provides two basic modes of operation:
A) Normal Mode – Backup Mode
B) Primary Mode – Secondary Mode
C) Normal – Direct Mode
D) Primary Mode – Direct Mode
36) Which one of the following components is not a data provider to the flight control system?
A) IRS
B) WOW sensors
C) Brake Control Modules
D) Ice Detectors
37) How many Control Units does have the elevator control system have?
A) Two
B) Four
C) Six
D) Eight
38) The Flaps system controls ________ (Both Wings).
A) Two double slotted flap surfaces
B) Four double slotted flap surfaces
C) Eight double slotted flap surfaces
D) Five double slotted flap surfaces
39) What are the functions of the multifunction spoilers?
A) Roll control – Speed Brakes – Ground spoilers
B) Roll control – Speed Brakes – Ground spoilers - Stability
C) Speed Brakes – Ground spoilers
D) Roll control – Speed Brakes

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 During a Go-Around maneuver the speed brakes will automatically retract anytime the thrust levers
40)
are:
A) Thrust lever are advance beyond (TLA) 70 degrees
B) Thrust lever are advance beyond (TLA) 50 degrees
C) Thrust lever are advance beyond (TLA) 60 degrees
D) Thrust lever are advance beyond (TLA) 90 degrees
41) In flight, the RAT is used as an emergency generator, supplying power to the ESS BUSES when:
A) DC BUSES 1 and 2 are not powered
B) DC ESS BUS 1 and 2 are not powered
C) AC BUSES 1 and 2 are not powered
D) AC ESS BUS 1 and 2 are not powered
42) Automatic IDG disconnection occurs when:
A) IDG oil temperature reaches 145°C
B) Oil pressure drops below 140 Psi
C) Oil pressure drops below 140 Psi
D) IDG oil temperature reaches 185°C
43) In an ELECTRICAL EMERGENCY, batteries supply essential loads for:
A) 5 minutes
B) 10 minutes
C) 15 minutes
D) 20 minutes
44) The source priority order for powering the airplane is:
A) Respective IDG – APU – GPU (ground NO APU) – Opposite IDG
B) Respective IDG – Opposite IDG – APU – GPU – (ground NO APU)
C) Respective IDG – APU – Opposite IDG - GPU (ground NO APU)
D) Respective IDG – GPU (ground NO APU) – Opposite IDG
45) The check for the batteries voltage is not valid if:
A) Any AC source is powering the airplane
B) If the temperature is below -15°C
C) Any DC source is powering the airplane
D) If the temperature is below -10°C
46) The minimum battery 2 temperature for APU starting is:
A) -10°C
B) -20°C
C) -25°C
D) -30°C
47) Windshear detection is activated between
A) 2000ft – 10ft Radio altitude
B) 1500ft – 10ft Radio altitude
C) 1800ft – 10ft Radio altitude
D) 1000ft – 10ft Radio altitude
The EGPWS uses ______ to provide the flight crew with increased awareness of the terrain along the
48)
projected flight path:
A) Airplane position, configuration, and terrain database
B) Airplane position, velocity, and terrain database
C) GPS position, WOW inputs, and terrain database
D) GPS position, terrain database, and velocity
This function is used to look ahead of the airplane and detect terrain or obstacle conflicts with greater
49)
alerting time:
A) The Clearance Floor
B) Ground proximity Warning Function
C) Forward Looking Terrain Awareness Function
D) Unsafe Clearance Mode

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50) There are ________ aural warning priority levels, from the highest to the lowest:

A) Three levels
B) Four levels
C) Five levels
D) Two levels
51) TCAS Proximity Traffic Indicates (Cyan solid diamond)
A) Traffic within 4nm and 1200ft above or below the airplane
B) Traffic within 5nm and 1500ft above or below the airplane
C) Traffic within 6.5nm and 1200ft above or below the airplane
D) Traffic within 4nm and 1500ft above or below the airplane
52) Message priority levels:
A) Warning – Caution – Advisory
B) Warning – Caution – Advisory – Maintenance
C) Warning – Caution – Maintenance
D) Warning – Caution – Advisory – Status
53) What are the components of the Automatic Flight Control System (AFCS)?
A) Flight Director – Autopilot – Yaw Damper – FBW
B) Flight Director – Autopilot – Yaw Damper – FMA
C) Flight Director – Autopilot – FBW
D) Flight Director – Autopilot with couple – Yaw Damper
54) The FD automatically turns on under the following conditions:
A) TO/GA button actuation
B) Manual selection of any vertical or lateral mode
C) Windshear detection
D) All of the above
In flight the autopilot is engaged pushing the AP button on the guidance panel. The AP engagement is
55)
verified on:
A) Flight Mode Annunciator (FMA)
B) EICAS
C) MCDU (status)
D) Control column feed back
56) If ROLL mode is activated with a bank angle of 18°:
A) AP levels the wings
B) AP holds present bank angle
C) AP maintains bank angle at 35°
D) AP maintains bank angle at 20°
57) The GA mode first guidance sets pitch at:
A) 8°
B) 10°
C) 12°
D) 15°
58) Which of the following thrust ratings is NOT computed by the Thrust Rating Selection System?
A) Takeoff (TO)
B) Climb 1 and Climb 2
C) Continuous (CON)
D) Alternate Takeoff (ALT-TO)
59) The Automatic Flight Control (AFCS) supplies data to:
A) Flight Guidance Control System and Thrust Management System
B) Autopilot and Fly by Wire systems
C) Flight Guidance Control Systems and FADECS
D) MAU and ADC computers

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 It maintains the oil temperature within an acceptable range and heats the engine fuel to prevent
60)
freezing:
A) Fuel filter
B) Fuel-cooled oil cooler (FCOC)
C) Fuel to Air Heat Exchanger
D) Low pressure pump
61) Which of the following components in NOT controlled by the FADEC
A) Engine driven generator
B) Engine fuel metering unit
C) Variable geometry valve
D) Ignition System
62) Final approach Idle is active as follows:
A) Altitude lower than 1200ft AGL – Landing flaps – Landing gear down
B) Altitude lower than 1500ft AGL – Landing flaps – Landing gear down
C) Altitude lower than 1200ft AGL – Flaps 2 – Landing gear down
D) Altitude lower than 1500ft AGL – Flaps 2 – Landing gear down
63) What provides underspeed and overspeed protection for the engines?
A) FADEC
B) FMU
C) Variable Geometry Actuator
D) All of the above
When the pilot sets the START/STOP selector START the start control valve in commanded open but
64)
the flow only starts when:
A) ITT is below 150°
B) ITT is below 140°
C) ITT is below 130°
D) ITT is below 120°
65) The FADC provides engine start protection on the ground as follows:
A) Hung start - Hot start
B) Hung start - Hot start – No light – off
C) Hung start - Hot start – No light – off – ATS Valve open condition
D) Hung start - Hot start – ATS Valve open condition
66) How many Air Data Systems does the Aircraft have?
A) 3 Independents ADSs
B) 5 Independents ADSs
C) 7 Independents ADSs
D) 4 Independents ADSs
67) Which of the following components does NOT receive information for the Air Data System?
A) Altimeter
B) Flight Control
C) Side slip indicator
D) Ice Detectors
68) Which Air Data system sends information to flight control system?
A) ADS 1
B) ADS 2
C) ADS 3
D) ADS 5
69) In case of loss of both MAUs, a tuning backup is available in ______ :
A) Radio tuning is NOT available
B) Tuning backup is available in MCDU 2
C) Tuning backup is available in MCDU 1
D) Radio tuning operates normal

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70) The flight data begins to be recorded when:

A) Airplane is energized
B) The first engine is started
C) The beacon it turned ON
D) 1 min after airplane is energized
71) The alignment (IRS) on ground (up to 17 min) must be performed with:
A) Airplane NOT in movement and GPS position
B) Airplane NOT in movement, GPS position or manually entered primarily via MCDU
C) Airplane NOT in movement, last position, IRS set to ALIGN Mode
D) Airplane NOT in movement, IRS set to AILIGN Mode
72) What does a Green (WX/T) on the Weather radar mode annunciator mean?
A) Normal XW with Terrain
B) Normal WX with TURB
C) Normal WX with RCT
D) None of the above
73) What are the main components of the Weather Radar System?
A) Integrated Receiver Transmitter Antenna unit (RTA) - Two virtual controllers
B) Integrated Antenna – Two virtual controllers – Radome
C) Integrated Antenna – One primary module – One backup module
D) Integrated Antenna – One primary module
74) What are the two modes of operation of the Radar Gain?
A) Variable and Continuous
B) Calibrated and Target
C) Calibrated and Continuous
D) Variable and Calibrated
75) What is the maximum/minimum angle tilt of the radar antenna?
A) 10 degrees up and 10 degrees down
B) 15 degrees up and 15 degrees down
C) 25 degrees up and 25 degrees down
D) 30 degrees up and 30 degrees down
76) ______ indicates rain intensity in order of increasing intensity: (WX mode)
A) Green, yellow, red, and magenta
B) Green, yellow, magenta, and red
C) Green, red, yellow, and magenta
D) Yellow, green, red, and magenta
77) Which of the following components is NOT related to the FMS operation?
A) GPS
B) IRS
C) Radar Altimeter
D) MFD/PFD
78) What is the function of the DES Mode of the FMS Flight Plan (Early)?
A) FD commands a 1000 FPM descent
B) Descents 1.5° steeper than the planned descent angle
C) Descents 2° steeper than the planned descent angle
D) FD commands a 2000 FPM descent
79) What is the primary function of the FMS?
A) Flight Planning and performance calculations
B) Position computation and flight planning
C) Position computation and systems monitoring
D) Flight Planning and systems monitoring

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80) What is the assigned color (MCDU Display) for Warnings, FROM Waypoints, Flight, and Plan Names
A) Cyan
B) Green
C) Magenta
D) Yellow
81) This function Key shows the MCDU page that gives access to maintenance and status information
A) NAV
B) DLK
C) MENU
D) RADIO
82) This type of MCDU message is the result of a pilot action (making an entry with the incorrect format)
A) Advisory
B) Caution
C) Warning
D) Alerting
83) The APU is automatically monitored and controlled through:
A) Electronic Control Unit (ECU)
B) Full Authority Digital Electronic Control (FADEC)
C) Electronic Computer
D) All of the above
84) The APU is able to supply Electrical AC power up to:
A) 37000ft
B) 35000ft
C) 33000ft
D) 32000ft
85) The APU is able to supply Bleed air for engine starting up to:
A) 25000ft
B) 21000ft
C) 23000ft
D) 22000ft
86) Maximum altitude for APU start is:
A) 37000ft
B) 35000ft
C) 30000ft
D) 31000ft
87) To avoid unsuccessful attempt start it is recommended to (APU):
A) Operate the APU within limits
B) Wait 60 sec after the EICAS is energized to start the APU
C) Wait 45 sec after the EICAS is energized to start the APU
D) Wait 30 sec after the EICAS is energized to start the APU
88) What components provides FUEL to the APU when the engines are running?
A) DC fuel pump, located in the right wing tank
B) AC fuel pump via the static inverter
C) The ejector fuel pump from the right wing tank
D) The ejector fuel pump from the left wing tank
89) What is the maximum Flap Extended Speed (Vfe) for the FLAPS 1 position?
A) 250 kts
B) 220 kts
C) 230 kts
D) 200 kts

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90) What is the maximum recommended crosswind for a wet runway?
A) 38 kts
B) 31 kts
C) 20 kts
D) 35 kts
91) What is the Maximum Tire Ground Speed?
A) 195 kts
B) 170 kts
C) 180 kts
D) 150 kts
92) What is the minimum fuel tank temperature?
A) -37° C
B) -40° C
C) -50° C
D) -35° C
93) What is the Maximum differential pressure?
A) 7.8 PSI
B) 8.4 PSI
C) 8.5 PSI
D) 8.0 PSI
94) Autopilot Minimum Engagement Height:
A) 400ft
B) 500ft
C) 1000ft
D) 250ft
95) What is the maximum altitude for flap extended operation?
A) 25000ft
B) 20000ft
C) 15000ft
D) 22000ft
96) What is the VLO for retraction (Landing Gear Operation speed)?
A) 235kts
B) 250kts
C) 265kts
D) 220kts
97) Maximum altitude for takeoff
A) 8000ft
B) 10000ft
C) 12000ft
D) 11000ft
To permit engine thermal stabilization prior to shut down the engine, it is recommended to keep the
98)
engine running at Idle during:
A) 1 minute
B) 2 minute
C) 3 minute
D) 4 minute
99) Takeoff thrust is limited to:
A) 1 minute
B) 2 minutes
C) 3 minutes
D) 5 minutes

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100) What component of the airplane has the largest arc while turning
A) The wings
B) The Tail
C) The Nose
D) Depends on aircraft speed
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