CAREER POINT .

AIPMT - 2007

AIPMT - 2007
Q.1 Dimensions of resistance in an electrical circuit, Q.7 A wheel as angular acceleration of 3.0 rad/sec2
in terms of dimension of mass M, of length L, of and initial angular speed of 2.00 rad/sec. In a
time T and of current I, would be:- time of 2 sec it has rotated through an angle (in
(1) ML2T–3I–2 (2) ML2T–3I–1 radian) of :
(1) 4 (2) 6 (3) 10 (4) 12
(3) ML2T–2 (4) ML2T–1I–1 r r
Q.8 A and B are two vectors and θ is the angle
r r r r
Q.2 A particle moving along x-axis has acceleration between them, if | A × B | = 3 (A.B) the value
 t of θ is:-
f, at time t, given by f = f0 1 −  , where f0 and (1) 90º (2) 60º (3) 45º (4)30º
 T
T are constants. The particle at t = 0 has zero Q.9 The position x of a particle with respect to time
velocity. In the time interval between t = 0 and the t along x-axis is given by x = 9t2 – t3 where x is
instant when f = 0, the particle's velocity (vx) is: in metres and t in seconds. What will be the
1 1 position of this particle when it achieves
(1) f0T (2) f0T (3) f0T2 (4) f0T2 maximum speed along the + x direction ?
2 2
(1) 24 m (2) 32 m (3) 54m (4) 81m
Q.3 A car moves from X to Y with a uniform speed
vu and returns to Y with a uniform speed vd. The Q.10 A mass of 2.0 kg is put on a flat pan attached to
average speed for this round trip is:- a vertical spring fixed on the ground as shown
v + vd 2vd v u in the figure. The mass of the spring and the pan
(1) u (2) is negligible. When pressed slightly and
2 vd + v u released the mass executes a simple harmonic
vd v u motion. The spring constant is 200N/m. What
(3) v u vd (4) should be the minimum amplitude of the motion
vd + v u
so that the mass gets detached from the pan
(Take g = 10 m/s2)
Q.4 A particle staring from the origin (0, 0) moves in m
a straight line in the (x, y) plane. Its coordinates
at a later time are ( 3 ,3) . The path of the particle
makes with the x-axis an angle of:-
(1) 0º (2) 30º (3) 45º (4) 60º (1) 4.0 cm
(2) 8.0 cm
Q.5 A block B is pushed momentarily along a (3) 10.0 cm
horizontal surface with an initial velocity v. If µ (4) Any value less than 12.0 cm
is the coefficient of sliding friction between B
and the surface, block B will come to rest after a Q.11 A particle of mass m moves in the XY plane
time:- with a velocity v along the straight line AB. If
v the angular momentum of the particle with
B
respect to origin O is LA when it is at A and LB
(1) v/g (2) v/(gµ) (3) gµ/v (4) g/v when it is at B, then :
Y
Q.6 A vertical spring with force constant K is fixed B
A
on a table. A ball of mass m at a height h above
the free upper end of the spring falls vertically on
the spring so that the spring is compressed by a
O X
distance d. The net work done in the process is:-
1 1 (1) LA < L
(1) mg(h − d ) + Kd 2 (2) mg(h + d ) + Kd 2 (2) LA > LB
2 2
1 1 (3) LA = LB
(3) mg(h + d ) − Kd 2 (4) mg(h − d ) − Kd 2 (4) The relationship between LA and LB depends
2 2
upon the slope of the line AB
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Q.12 A uniform rod AB of length l and mass m is free Q.18 The phase difference between the instantaneous
to rotate about point A. The rod is released from velocity and acceleration of a particle executing
rest in the horizontal position. Given that the
simple harmonic motion is:-
ml 2
moment of inertia of the rod about A is ,
3 (1) Zero (2) 0.5 π
the initial angular acceleration of the rod will be:-
(3) π (4) 0.707π

l Q.19 The particle executing simple harmonic motion

B
has a ienetic energy K0 cos2ωt. The maximum
values of the potential energy and the total
energy are respectively:-
(1) K0 and K0 (2) 0 and 2K0
3g 2g l 3
(1) (2) (3) mg (4) gl K0
2l 3l 2 2 (3) and K0 (4) K0 and 2K0
2
Q.13 Two satellites of earth, S1 and S2, are moving in
the same orbit. The mass of S1 is four times the Q.20 A particle executes simple harmonic oscillation
mass of S2. Which one of the following with an amplitude a. The period of oscillation is
statements is true ?
(1) The kinetic energies of the two satellites are T. The minimum time taken by the particle to
equal travel half of the amplitude from the
(2) The time period of S1 is four times that of S2 equilibrium position is:
(3) The potential energies of earth and satellite in
the two cases are equal (1) T/2 (2) T/4 (3) T/8 (4) T/12
(4) S1 and S2 are moving with the same speed
Q.21 The electric and magnetic field of an electromagnetic
Q.14 Assuming the sun to have a spherical outer wave are:-
surface of radius r, radiating like a black body at
temperature tºC, the power received by a unit (1) in phase and perpendicular to each other
surface, (normal to the incident rays) at distance (2) in phase and parallel to each other
R from the centre of the Sun is:-
Where σ is the Stefan's Constant. (3) in opposite phase and perpendicular to each
(1) r2σ (t + 273)4/R2 other
(2) 4πr2σt4/R2
(4) in opposite phase and parallel to each other
(3) r2σ (t + 273)4 /4πR2
(4) 16π2r2σ t4/R2 Q.22 A small coin is resting on the bottom of a
Q.15 An engine has an efficiency of 1/6. When the beaker filled with a liquid. A ray of light from
temperature of sink is reduced by 62ºC, its
the coin travels upto the surface of the liquid
efficiency is doubled. Temperature of the source is-
(1) 99ºC (2) 124ºC and moves along its surface (see figure)
(3) 37ºC (4) 62ºC 3cm
Q.16 A black body is at 727ºC. It emits energy at a
4cm

rate which is proportional to:

(1) (727)4 (2) (727)2
4
(3) (1000) (4) (1000)2 Coin
Q.17 The frequency of a light wave in a material is How fast is the light traveling in the liquid ?
2 × 1014 Hz and wavelength is 5000 Å. The (1) 1.2 × 108 m/s (2) 1.8 × 108 m/s
refractive index of material will be:-
(3) 2.4 × 108 m/s (4) 3.0 × 108 m/s
(1) 1.33 (2) 1.40 (3) 1.50 (4) 3.00

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Q.23 Charge +q and –q are placed at points A and B Q.27 The total power dissipated in watts in the circuit
respectively which are at distance 2L apart, C is the shown here is:-
midpoint between A and B. The work done in
moving a charge + Q along the semicircle CRD is:- 6Ω
R
3Ω
4Ω 18V
A C B D (1) 4W (2) 16W
qQ qQ (3) 40W (4) 54W
(1) − (2)
6π ∈0 L 4π ∈0 L
Q.28 A steady current of 1.5 amp flows through a
qQ qQ copper voltameter for 10 minutes. If the
(3) (4)
2π ∈0 L 6π ∈0 L electrochemical equivalent of copper is
30 × 10–5 gm coulomb–1, the mass of copper
Q.24 A hollow cylinder has a charge q coulomb within deposited on the electrode will be: -
it. If φ is the electric flux in units of voltmeter
(1) 0.27 gm (2) 0.40 gm
associated with the curved surface B, the flux
linked with the plane surface A in units of (3) 0.50 gm (4) 0.67 gm
voltmeter will be-
B Q.29 If the cold junction of a thermo-couple is kept at
C A 0ºC and the hot junction is kept at TºC, then the
relation between neutral temperature (Tn) and
temperature of inversion (Ti) is:
q 1 q 
(1) −φ (2)  − φ  (1) Tn = Ti + T (2) Tn = Ti/2
∈0 2  ∈0  (3) Tn = 2Ti (4) Tn = Ti – T
q φ
(3) (4) Q.30 Three resistances P, Q, R each of 2Ω and an
2 ∈0 3
unknown resistance S form the four arms of a
Q.25 Three point charges +q, –2q and +q are placed at Wheatstone bridge circuit. When a resistance of
points (x = 0, y = a, z = 0), (x = 0,y = 0, z = 0) 6Ω is connected in parallel to S the bridge gets
and (x = a, y = 0, z = 0) respectively. The balanced. What is the value of S ?
magnitude and direction of the electric dipole
(1) 1Ω (2) 2Ω (3) 3Ω (4) 6Ω
moment vector of this charge assembly are:-
(1) 2 qa along + x direction Q.31 The resistance of an ammeter is 13Ω and its
scale is graduated for a current upto 100 amps.
(2) 2 qa along + y direction After and additional shunt has been connected
to this ammeter it becomes possible to measure
(3) 2 qa along the line joining points
currents upto 750 amperes by this meter. The
(x = 0, y = 0, z = 0) and (x = a, y = a, z = 0) value of shunt-resistance is-
(4) qa along the line joining points (1) 2 kΩ (2) 20Ω (3) 2Ω (4) 0.2Ω
(x = 0, y = 0, z = 0) and (x = a, y = a, z = 0 )
Q.32 Under the influence of a uniform magnetic field
Q.26 Two condensers, one of capacity C and the other a charged particle is moving in a circle of radius
C R with constant speed v. The time period of the
of capacity , are connected to a V-volt battery,
2 motion-
as shown- (1) depends on R and not on v
(2) depends on v and not on R
C
V C (3) depends on both R and v
2
(4) is independent of both R and v
The work done in charging fully both the Q.33 A charged particle (charge q) is moving in a
condensers is: circle of radius R with uniform speed v. The
1 associated magnetic moment µ is given by:
(1) CV2 (2) 2CV2
2 (1) q v R (2) q v R/2
2
1 3 (3) q v R (4) qv R2/2
(3) CV2 (4) CV 2
4 4
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Q.34 A beam of electrons passes undeflected through Q.40 Monochromatic light of frequency 6.0 × 1014 Hz
mutually perpendicular electric and magnetic is produced by a laser. The power emitted is
fields. It the electric field is switched off, and the 2 × 10–3W. The number of photons emitted, on
same magnetic field is maintained, the electrons the average, by the source per second is:-
move: (1) 5 × 1014 (2) 5 × 1015
(1) along a straight line (3) 5 × 1016
(4) 5 × 1017
(2) in an elliptical orbit
(3) in a circular orbit Q.41 In a mass spectrometer used for measuring the
(4) along a parabolic path masses of ions, the ions are initially accelerated
by an electric potential V and then made to
Q.35 The primary and secondary coils of a transformer describe semicircular paths of radius R using a
have 50 and 1500 turns respectively. If the magnetic field B. If V and B are kept constant,
magnetic flux φ linked with the primary coil is  Charge on the ion 
the ratio   will be
given by φ = φ0 + 4t, where φ is in webers, t is  mass of the ion 
time in seconds and φ0 is a constant, the output
proportional to:-
voltage across the secondary coil is:
1 1
(1) 30 volts (2) 90 volts (1) R (2) (3) (4) R2
(3) 120 volts (4) 220 volts R R2

27
Q.36 What is the value of inductance L for which the Q.42 If the nucleus 13 Al has a nuclear radius of
current is a maximum in a series LCR circuit about 3.6 fm, the 125
52 Te would have its radius
with C = 10 µF and ω = 1000s–1 ?
approximately as:-
(1)10 mH
(1) 4.8 fm (2) 6.0 fm
(2) 100 mH
(3) 9.6 fm (4) 12.0 fm
(3) 1 mH
(4) cannot be calculated unless R is known
Q.43 In radioactive decay process, the negatively
charged emitted β-particles are:-
Q.37 A transformer is used to light a 100 W and 110V (1) the electrons orbiting around the nucleus
lamp from a 220V mains. If the main current is
0.5 amp, the efficiency of the transformer is (2) the electrons present inside the nucleus
approximately- (3) the electrons produced as a result of the
(1) 10% (2) 30% (3) 50% (4) 90% decay of neutrons inside the nucleus
(4) the electrons produced as a result of
Q.38 Nickel shows ferromagnetic property at room collisions between atoms
temperature. If the temperature is increased
beyond Curie temperature then it will show:- Q.44 A nucleus AZ X has mass represented by
(1) diamagnetism M(A,Z). If Mp and Mn denote the mass of
(2) paramagnetism proton and neutron respectively and B.E. the
(3) anti ferromagnetism binding energy in MeV, then:
(4) no magnetic property (1) B.E. = M(A,Z) – ZMp – (A–Z) Mn
(2) B.E. = [M(A, Z) – ZMp – (A – Z) Mn]C2
Q.39 A 5 watt source emits monochromatic light of (3) B.E. = [ZMp + (A – Z)Mn – M(A, Z)]C2
wavelength 5000 Å. When placed 0.5 m away, it (4) B.E. = [ZMp + AMn – M(A, Z)]C2
liberates photoelectrons from a photosensitive
metallic surface. When the source is moved to a Q.45 Two radioactive substances A and B have decay
distance of 1.0m, the number of photo electrons constants 5λ and λ respectively. At t = 0 they
liberated will : have the same number of nuclei. The ratio of
(1) be reduced by a factor of 2 number of nuclei of A to those of B will be
2
(2) be reduced by a factor of 4 1
  after a time interval:-
(3) be reduced by a factor of 8 e
(4) be reduced by a factor of 16 1 1
(1) (2) (3) 4λ (4) 2λ
2λ 4λ
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Q.46 The total energy of electron in the ground state Q.50 For a cubic crystal structure which one of the
of hydrogen atom is –13.6 eV. The kinetic following relations indicating the cell
energy of an electron in first excited state is:- characteristics is correct:
(1) 1.7 eV (2) 3.4 eV (1) a = b = c and α = β = γ = 90º
(2) a ≠ b ≠ c and α ≠ β and γ ≠ 90º
(3) 6.8 eV (4) 13.6 eV
(3) a ≠ b ≠ c and α = β = γ = 90º
(4) a = b = c and α ≠ β ≠ γ = 90º
Q.47 In the energy band diagram of a material shown
below, the open circles and filled circles denote Q.51 With which of the following electronic
holes and electrons respectively. The material is:- configuration of an atom has the lowest
Ec ionization enthalpy:
(1) 1s22s22p6 (2) 1s22s22p5
2 2 3
(3) 1s 2s 2p (4) 1s22s22p53s1
Eg
Q.52 An element, X has the following isotopic
composition;
200
X : 90%
Ev 199
X : 8.0%
202
X : 2.0%
(1) an n-type semiconductor The weighted average atomic mass of the
(2) a p-type semiconductor naturally-occurring element X is closest to:
(3) an insulator (1) 199 amu (2) 200 amu
(3) 201 amu (4) 202 amu
(4) a metal
Q.53 Concentrated aqueous sulphuric acid is 98%
Q.48 A common emitter amplifier has voltage gain of H2SO4 by mass and has a density of 1.80 [Link]–1.
Volume of acid required to make 1 litre of
50, an input impedance of 100Ω and an output 0.1 M H2SO4 solution is:
impedance of 200 Ω. The power gain of the (1) 5.55 mL (2) 11.10 mL
amplifier is:- (3) 16.65 mL (4) 22.20 mL
(1) 100 (2) 500 (3) 1000 (4) 1250
Q.54 Consider the following sets of quantum number:
n l m s
Q.49 In the following circuit, the output Y for all (a) 3 0 0 +½
possible inputs A and B is expressed by the truth (b) 2 2 1 +½
table:- (c) 4 3 –2 –½
A A (d) 1 0 –1 –½
Y (e) 3 2 3 +½
B B
Which of the following sets of quantum number
A B Y A B Y is not possible:
0 0 0 0 0 0 (1) a and c (2) b, c and d
(1) 0 1 1 (2) 0 1 0 (3) a, b, c and d (4) b, d, and e
1 0 1 1 0 0 Q.55 The number of moles of KMnO4 that will be
1 1 1 1 1 1 needed to react with one mole of sulphite ion in
acidic solution is:
A B Y A B Y 3 4 2
(1) 1 (2) (3) (4)
0 0 1 0 0 1 5 5 5
(3) 0 1 1 (4) 0 1 0 Q.56 In a first order reaction A → B, if k is rate
1 0 1 1 0 0 constant and initial concentration of the reactant
A is 0.5 M then the half-life is:
1 1 0 1 1 0
ln 2 0.693 log 2 log 2
(1) (2) (3) (4)
k 0.5k k k 0.5

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Q.57 The reaction of hydrogen an iodine monochloride is Q.63 Given that bond energies of H–H and Cl–Cl are
given as 430 kJ mol–1 and 240 kJ mol–1 respectively and
H2(g) + 2ICl(g) → 2HCl(g) + I2(g) ∆fH for HCl is –90 kJ mol–1. Bond enthalpy of
This reaction is of first order with respect to H2(g) HCl is :
and ICl(g), following mechanisms were proposed (1) 245 kJ mol–1 (2) 290 kJ mol–1
–1
Mechanism A: (3) 380 kJ mol (4) 425 kJ mol–1
H2(g) + 2ICl(g) → 2HCl(g) + I2(g)
Mechanism B : Q.64 The Langmuir adsorption isotherm is deduced
H2(g) + ICl(g) → HCl(g) + HI(g) ; Slow using the assumption:
HI(g) + ICl(g) → HCl(g) + I2(g) ; Fast (1) The adsorbed molecules interact with each
Which of the above mechanism(s) can be other
consistent with the given information about the (2) The adsorption takes place in multilayer
reaction: (3) The adsorption sites are equivalent in their
(1) A only (2) B only ability to adsorb the particle
(3)A and B both (4) Neither A nor B (4) The heat of adsorption varies with coverage

Q.58 If 60% of a first order reaction was completed in Q.65 The following equilibrium constants are given-
60 minutes, 50% of the same reaction would be N2 + 3H2 2NH3 ; K1
completed in approximately: N2 + O 2 2NO; K2
(1) 40 minutes (2) 50 minutes H2 + ½O2 H2O ; K3
(3) 45 minutes (4) 60 minutes The equilibrium constant for the oxidation of
(log 4 = 0.60, log 5 = 0.69) the NH3 by oxygen to give NO is:
K1K 2 K 2 K 33
Q.59 The equilibrium constant of the reaction: (1) (2)
K3 K1
Cu(s) + 2Ag+(aq) → Cu2+(aq) + 2Ag(s);
º
E = 0.46V at 298 K is: K 2 K 32 K 22 K 3
(3) (4)
(1) 4.0 × 1015 (2) 2.4 × 1010 K1 K1
10
(3) 2.0 × 10 (4) 4.0 × 1010
Q.66 Calculate the pOH of a solution at 25ºC that
contains 1× 10–10 M of hydronium ions, i.e. H3O+;
Q.60 0.5 molal aqueous solution of a weak acid (HX)
(1) 1.000 (2) 7.000
is 20% ionised. If Kf for water is 1.86 K kg mol–1,
the lowering in freezing point of the solution is: (3) 4.000 (4) 9.000
(1) –0.56 K (2) –1.12 K Q.67 A weak acid HA has a Ka of 1.00 × 10–5. If
(3) 0.56 K (4) 1.12 K 0.100 mol of this acid is dissolved in one litre of
water the percentage of acid dissociated at
Q.61 The efficiency of a fuel cell is given by : equilibrium is closest to :
∆S ∆H ∆G ∆G (1) 0.100% (2) 99.0%
(1) (2) (3) (4) (3) 1.00% (4) 99.9%
∆G ∆G ∆S ∆H
Q.68 The fraction of total volume occupied by the
Q.62 Consider the following reactions: atoms present in a simple cube is:
(a) H (+aq ) + OH (−aq ) = H 2O (1) , ∆H = −X1kJ mol −1 π π
(1) (2)
4 6
1
(b) H2(g) + O2(g) = H2O(l), ∆H = – X2kJ mol–1 π π
2 (3) (4)
3 2 4 2
(c) CO2(g) + H2(g) = CO(g) + H2O(l) – X3 kJ mol–1
5 Q.69 Identify the correct order of the size of the
(d) C2H2(g) + O2(g) = 2CO2(g) + H2O(l)+X4kJ mol–1 following:
2
(1) Ca2+ < Ar < K+ < Cl– < S2–
Enthalpy of formation of H2O(1) is:
(2) Ca2+ < K+ < Ar < S2– < Cl–
(1) + X1 kJ mol–1 (2) – X2 kJ mol–1
–1 (3) Ca2+ < K+ < Ar < Cl– < S2–
(3) + X3 kJ mol (4) – X4 kJ mol–1
(4) Ar < Ca2+ < K+ < Cl– < S2–
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Q.70 In which of the following pairs, the two species Q.77 Which one of the following anions is present in
are iso-structural ? the chain structure of silicates:
(1) BrO3− and XeO3 (2) SF4 and XeF4 (1) SiO 44− (2) Si 2 O 67−
(3) SO 32− and NO3− (4) BF3 and NF3 (3) (Si 2 O52− ) n (4) (SiO 32− ) n

Q.71 The correct order of C–O bond length among Q.78 Which one of the following orders correctly
CO, CO 32− , CO2 is: represents the increasing acid strengths of the
given acids:
(1) CO < CO2 < CO32− (1) HOClO3 < HOClO2 < HOClO < HOCl
(2) CO2 < CO 32− < CO (2) HOCl < HOClO < HOClO2 < HOClO3
(3)HOClO < HOCl < HOClO3 < HOClO2
(3) CO < CO 32− < CO2
(4) HOClO2 < HOClO3 < HOClO < HOCl
(4) CO 32− < CO 2 < CO
Q.79 Which of the following oxidation states are the
Q.72 Which one of the following ionic species has the most characteristic for lead and tin respectively:
greatest proton affinity to form stable compound: (1) +2, +2 (2) +4, +2
(3) +2, +4 (4) +4, + 4
(1) I– (2) HS– (3) NH −2 (4) F–

Q.80 Identify the incorrect statement among the

Q.73 In which of the following the hydration energy is following:
higher than the lattice energy:
(1) Shielding power of 4f electrons is quite weak
(1) SrSO4 (2) BaSO4
(2) There is a decrease in the radii of the atoms
(3) MgSO4 (4) RaSO4 or ions as one proceeds from La to Lu.
(3) Lanthanoid contraction is the accumulation
Q.74 Which of the following statements, about the of successive shrinkages
advantage of roasting of sulphide ore before (4) As a result of lanthanoid contraction, the
reduction is not true : properties of 4d series of the transition
(1) Roasting of the sulphide to the oxide is elements have no similarities with the 5d
thermodynamically feasible series of elements.
(2) Carbon and hydrogen are suitable reducting
agents for metal sulphides Q.81 Which one of the following ions is the most
(3) The ∆fGθ of the sulphide is greater than those stable in aqueous solution ?
for CS2 and H2S (1) Mn3+ (2) Cr3+ (3) V3+ (4) Ti3+
(4) The ∆fGθ is negative for roasting for sulphide (At. No. Ti = 22, V = 23, Cr = 24, Mn = 25)
ore to oxide
Q.82 The d electron configuration of Cr2+, Mn2+, Fe2+
Q.75 The correct order of increasing thermal stability and Ni2+ are 3d4, 3d5, 3d6 and 3d8 respectively.
of K2CO3, MgCO3, CaCO3 and BeCO3 is: Which one of the following aqua complex will
(1) K2CO3 < MgCO3 < CaCO3 < BeCO3 exhibit the minimum paramagnetic behaviour ?
(2) BeCO3 < MgCO3 < K2CO3 < CaCO3 (1) [Cr(H2O)6]2+ (2) [Mn(H2O)6]2+
2+
(3) BeCO3 < MgCO3 < CaCO3 < K2CO3 (3) [Fe(H2O)6] (4) [Ni(H2O)6]2+
(4) MgCO3 < BeCO3 < CaCO3 < K2CO3 (At. No. Cr = 24, Mn= 25, Fe = 26, Ni = 28)

Q.76 Sulphide ores of metals are usually concentrated Q.83 Which of the following will give a pair of
by Froth Flotation process. Which one of the enantiomorphs:
following sulphide ores offers and exception and (1) [Pt(NH3)4][PtCl6]
is concentrated by chemical leaching ? (2) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]NO2
(1) Sphalerite (2) Argentite (3) [Cr(NH3)6][Co(CN)6]
(3) Galena (4) Copper pyrite (4) [Co(en)2Cl2]Cl
(en = NH2 CH2 CH2 NH2)

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Q.84 If NaCl is doped with 10–4 mole% of SrCl2, the Q.89 Which one of the following on treatment with
concentrate of cation vacancies will be: 50% aqueous sodium hydroxide yields the
(NA = 6.02 × 1023 mol–1) corresponding alcohol and acid:
(1) 6.02 × 1014 mol–1 (2) 6.02 × 1015 mol–1 O
(3) 6.02 × 1016 mol–1 (4) 6.02 × 1017 mol–1 (1) CH3–C–CH3 (2) C6H5CH2CHO
(3) C6H5CHO (4) CH3CH2CH2CHO
Q.85 Which of the following presents the correct order
of the acidity in the given compounds: Q.90 Which one of the following on reduction with
lithium aluminium hydride yield a secondary
(1) FCH2COOH > ClCH2COOH > BrCH2COOH amine:
> CH3COOH (1) Methyl Cyanide (2) Nitroethane
(2) CH3COOH > BrCH2COOH > ClCH2COOH (3) Methylisocyanide (4) Acetamide
> FCH2COOH
(3) FCH2COOH > CH3COOH > BrCH2COOH
> ClCH2COOH Q.91 The order decreasing reactivity towards an
electrophilic reagent, for the following:
(4) BrCH2COOH > ClCH2COOH > FCH2COOH
> CH3COOH (a) Benzene
(b) Toluene
Q.86 The product formed in Aldol condensation is: (c) Chlorobenzene and
(1) An alpha, beta unsaturated ester (d) Phenol
(2) A beta-hydroxy acid Would be:
(3) A beta-hydroxy aldehyde or a beta-hydroxy (1) d > b > a > c (2) a > b > c > d
ketone (3) b > d > a > c (4) d > c > b > a
(4) An alpha-hydroxy aldehyde or ketone
Q.92 Predict the product C obtained in the following
Q.87 Reduction of aldehydes and ketones into reaction of butyne-1:
HI
hydrocarbons using zinc amalgam and conc. HCl CH3–CH2–C ≡ CH + HCl 
→ B → C
is called: I
(1) Wolff-Kishner Reduction
(1) CH3CH2–C–CH3
(2) Clemmensen Reduction
(3) Cope Reduction Cl
(4) Dow Reduction (2) CH3CH–CH2–CH2I
Cl
Q.88 Consider the following compounds: I
(i) C6H5COCl
(3) CH3–CH2–CH2–C–H
(ii) O2N COCl Cl
I
(iii) H3C COCl (4) CH3–CH2–CH–CH2Cl

(vi) OHC Q.93 Which of the compounds with molecular

COCl
formula C5H10 yields acetone on ozonolysis:
The correct decreasing order of their reactivity (1) 2-Methyl-1-butene (2) 2-Methyl-2-butene
towards hydrolysis is: (3) 3-Methyl-1-butene (4) Cyclopentane
(1) (ii) > (iv) > (i) > (iii)
Q.94 If there is no rotation of plane polarized light by
(2) (ii) > (iv) > (iii) > (i) a compound in a specific solvent, through to the
(3) (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv) chiral, it may mean that :
(4) (iv) > (ii) > (i) > (iii) (1) The compound may be a racemic mixture
(2) The compound is certainly a chiral
(3) The compound is certainly meso
(4) There is no compound in the solvent
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Q.95 For the following: Q.101 Biological organization starts with:-
(a) I– (b) Cl– (c) Br– (1) Atomic level
The increasing order of nucleophilicity would be: (2) Submicroscopic molecular level
(1) Br– < Cl– < I– (2) I– < Br– < Cl– (3) Cellular level
– – –
(3) Cl < Br < I (4) I– < Cl– < Br– (4) Organismic level
Q.102 About 98 percent of the mass of every living
Q.96 CH3–CHCl–CH2–CH3 has a chiral centre, which organism is composed of just six elements
one of the following represents its R including carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen
configurations: and:
CH3 C2H5 (1) Calcium and phosphorus
(1) H–C–Cl (2) H3C–C–Cl (2) Phosphorus and sulphur
(3) Sulphur and magnesium
C2H5 H
(4) Magnesium and sodium
C2H5 C2H5
Q.103 Which one of the following is an example of
(3) H–C–CH3 (4) Cl–C–CH3
negative feedback loop in humans ?
Cl H (1) Secretion of sweat glands and constriction
of skin blood vessels when it is too hot
Q.97 In the reaction (2) Constriction of skin blood vessels and
CH3 contraction of skeletal muscles when it is
too cold
CH3–CH–CH2–O–CH2–CH3+HI (3) Secretion of tears after falling of sand
Heated
 → ………. particles into the eye
Which of the following compounds will be (4) Salivation of mouth at the sight of delicious
formed ? food
CH3 Q.104 What is common to whale, seal and shark ?
(1) CH3–CH–CH2OH + CH3–CH2–I (1) Homoeiothermy
CH3 (2)Seasonal migration
(3) Thick subcutaneous fat
(2) CH3–CH–CH2–I + CH3CH2OH
(4) Convergent evolution
(3) CH3–CH–CH3 + CH3CH2OH
Q.105 Which one of the following is not a constituent
CH3 of cell membrane ?
(4) CH3–CH–CH2OH + CH3CH3 (1) Phospholipids (2) Cholesterol
(3) Glycolipids (4) Proline
CH3
Q.106 Select the wrong statement from the following:
Q.98 Which one of the following vitamins is water- (1) The chloroplasts are generally much larger
soluble: than mitochondria
(1) Vitamin A (2) Vitamin B (2) Both chloroplasts and mitochondria contain
an inner and an outer membrane
(3) Vitamin E (4) Vitamin K
(3) Both chloroplasts and mitochondria have an
Q.99 RNA and DNA are chiral molecules, their internal compartment, the thylakoid space
chirality is due to: bounded by the thylakoid membrane
(1) D-sugar Component (4) Both chloroplasts and mitochondria contain
(2) L-sugar component DNA
(3) Chiral bases Q.107 The overall goal of glycolysis, Krebs cycle and
(4) Chiral phosphate ester units the electron transport system is the formation
of:-
Q.100 Which one of the following polymers is prepared (1) Nucleic acids
by condensation polymerization ? (2) ATP in small stepwise units
(1) Styrene (2) Nylon-66 (3) ATP in one large oxidation reaction
(3) Teflon (4) Rubber (4) Sugars
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Q.108 If the mean and the median pertaining to a Q.115 Flagellated male gametes are present in all the
certain character of a population are of the same three of which one of the following sets ?
value, the following is most likely to occur:- (1) Riccia, Dryopteris and Cycas
(1) A skewed curve
(2) Anthoceros, Funaria and Spirogyra
(2) A normal distribution
(3) Zygnema, Saprolegnia and Hydrilla
(3) A bi-modal distribution
(4) Fucus, Marsilea and Calotropis
(4) a T-shaped curve

Q.109 Which one of the following is a slime mould ? Q.116 In gymnosperms, the pollen chamber represents:
(1) Anabaena (2) Rhizopus (1)The microsporangium in which pollen grains
(3) Physarum (4) Thiobacillus develop
(2) A cell in the pollen grain in which the
Q.110 For a critical study of secondary growth in plants, sperms are formed
which one of the following pairs is suitable? (3) A cavity in the ovule in which pollen grains
(1) Wheat and maiden hair fern are stored after pollination
(2) Sugarcane and sunflower (4) An opening in the megagametophyte
(3) Teak and pine through which the pollen tube approaches
(4) Deodar and fern the egg

Q.111 Which one of the following statements about Q.117 Spore dissemination in some liverworts is aided
mycoplasma is wrong? by :
(1) They cause diseases in plants (1) Peristome teeth (2) Elaters
(2) They are also called PPLO (3) Indusium (4) Calyptra
(3) They are pleomorphic
(4) They are sensitive to penicillin
Q.118 Which pair of the following belongs to
Basidiomycetes ?
Q.112 In the prothallus of a vascular cryptogam, the
(1) Morchella and Mushrooms
antherozoids and eggs mature at different times.
As a result: (2) Birds' nest fungi and Pufballs
(1) Self fertilization is prevented (3) Pufballs and Claviceps
(2) There is no change in success rate of fertilization (4) Peziza and Stink horns
(3) There is high degree of sterility
(4) One can conclude that the plant is apomictic Q.119 ICBN stands for :
(1) Indian Code of Botanical Nomenclature
Q.113 Two plants can be conclusively said to belong to
(2) Indian Congress of Biological Names
the same species if they :
(3) International code of Botanical Nomenclature
(1) Have same number of chromosomes
(2) Can reproduce freely with each other and (4) International Congress of Biological Names
form seeds
(3) Have more than 90 percent similar genes Q.120 Ergot of rye is caused by a species of:-
(4) Look similar and possess identical secondary (1) Claviceps (2) Phytophthora
metabolites. (3) Uncinula (4) Ustilago

Q.114 If you are asked to classify the various algae into Q.121 When two species of different genealogy come
distinct groups, which of the following to resemble each other as a result of adaptation,
characters you should choose ? the phenomenon is termed:-
(1) Chemical composition of the cell wall (1) Convergent evolution
(2) Types of pigments present in the cell (2) Divergent evolution
(3) Nature of stored food materials in the cell (3) Microevolution
(4) Structural organization of thallus (4) Co-evolution

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Q.122 Adaptive radiation refers to:- Q.128 Among the human ancestors the brain size was
(1) Power of adaptation in an individual to a more than 1000 CC in:-
variety of environments (1) Homo habilis
(2) Adaptations due to Geographical isolation (2) Homo neanderthalensis
(3) Evolution of different species from a (3) Homo erectus
common ancestor (4) Ramapithecus
(4) Migration of members of a species to
different geographical areas Q.129 Which of the following pairs are correctly
Q.123 The living organisms can be unexceptionally matched ?
distinguished from the non-living things on the Animals Morphological
basis of their ability for:- features
(1) Growth and movement (A) Crocodile 4-chambered heart
(2) Responsiveness to touch (B) Sea Urchin Parapodia
(3) Interaction with the environment and (C) Obelia Metagenesis
progressive evolution (D) Lemur Thecodont
(4) Reproduction (1) Only A and B (2) A, C and D
Q.124 The finches of Galapogas islands provide an (3) B, C and D (4) Only A and D
evidence in favour of-
(1) Biogeographical Evolution Q.130 Select the correct statement from the following:
(2) Special Creation (1) Mutations are random and directional
(3) Evolution due to Mutation (2) Darwinian variations are small and
(4) Retrogressive Evolution directionless
(3) Fitness is the end result of the ability to
Q.125 One of the important consequences of geographical adapt and gets selected by nature
isolation is:- (4) All mammals except whales and camels
(1) Random creation of new species have seven cervical vertebrae
(2) No change in the isolated fauna
(3) Preventing Speciation Q.131 Which one of the following is a matching pair
(4) Speciation through reproductive isolation of a body feature and the animal possessing it ?
(1) Ventral heart – Scorpion
Q.126 Industrial melanism as observed in peppered (2) Post-anal tail – Octopus
moth proves that:- (3) Ventral central – Leech
(1) Melanism is a pollution-generated feature nervous system
(2) The true black melanic forms arise by a (4) Pharyngeal gill slits – Chamaeleon
recurring random mutation
Absent in embryo
(3) The melanic form of the moth has no
selective advantage over lighter form in Q.132 What is common between parrot, platypus and
industrial area kangaroo ?
(4) The lighter-form the moth has no selective (1) Ovoparity
advantage either in polluted industrial area
(2) Homoiothermy
or non-polluted area
(3) Toothless jaws
Q.127 The concept of chemical evolution is based on- (4) Functional post-anal tail
(1) Possible origin of life by combination of
chemicals under suitable environmental Q.133 What is true about Nereis, Scorpion, Cockroach
conditions and Silver fish ?
(2) Crystallization of chemicals (1) They all belong to the same phylum
(3) Interaction of water, air and clay under (2) They all have jointed paired appendages
intense heat (3) They all possess dorsal heart
(4) Effect of solar radiation on chemicals (4) None of them is aquatic

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Q.134 Which one of the following statement is correct ? Q.141 Which one of the following pairs, is not
(1) Ontogeny repeats phylogeny correctly matched ?
(2) Stem cells are specialized cells (1) IAA – Cell wall elongation
(3) There is no evidence of the existence of gills (2) Abscissic acid – Stomatal closure
during embryogenesis of mammals (3) Gibberellic acid – Leaf fall
(4) All plant & animal cells are totipotent (4) Cytokinin – Cell division

Q.135 "Foolish Seedling" disease of rice led to the Q.142 One gene-one enzyme relationship was established
discovery of :- for the first time in:
(1) IAA (2) GA (1) Diplococus pneumoniae
(2) Neurospora crassia
(3) ABA (4) 2, 4-D
(3) Salmonella typhimurium
(4) Escherichia Coli
Q.136 Passage cells are thin-walled cells found in:-
(1) Central region of style through which the
Q.143 Male gametes in angiosperms are formed by the
pollen tube grows towards the ovary. division of:
(2) Endodermis of roots facilitating rapid (1) Microspore mother cell
transport of water from cortex to pericycle
(2) Microspore
(3) Phloem elements that serve as entry points (3) Generative cell
for substances for transport to other plant
(4) Vegetative cell
parts
(4) Testa of seeds to enable emergence of
Q.144 Two cells A and B are contiguous. Cell A has
growing embryonic axis during seed
osmotic pressure 10 atm, turgor pressure 7 atm
germination. and diffusion pressure deficit 3 atm. Cell B has
osmotic pressure 8 atm, turgor pressure 3 atm
Q.137 The first acceptor of electrons from an excited and diffusion pressure deficit 5 atm. The result
chlorophyll molecule of photosystem II is:- will be:-
(1) Quinone (2) Cytochrome (1) Movement of water from cell A to B
(3) Iron-sulphur protein (4) Ferredoxin (2) Movement of water from cell B to A
(3) No movement of water
Q.138 All enzymes of TCA cycle are located in the (4) Equilibrium between the two
mitochondrial matrix except one which is located
in inner mitochondrial membranes in eukaryotes Q.145 In the leaves of C4 plants, malic acid formation
and in cytosol in prokaryotes. This enzyme is:- during CO2 fixation occurs in the cells of :
(1) Succinate dehydrogenase (1) Epidermis (2) Mesophyll
(2) Lactate dehydrogenase (3) Bundle Sheath (4) Phloem
(3) Isocitrate dehydrogenase
(4) Malate dehydrogenase Q.146 Which of the following is a flowering plant with
nodules containing filamentous nitrogen-fixing
microorganism ?
Q.139 The wavelength of light absorbed by Pr form of
(1) Cicer arietinum
phytochrome is:-
(2) Casuarina equisetifolia
(1) 620 nm (2) 640 nm
(3) Crotalaria juncea
(3) 680 nm (4) 720 nm
(4) Cycas revoluta
Q.140 Opening of floral buds into flowers, is a type of:
Q.147 Which one of the following is surrounded by a
(1) Autonomic movement of growth callose wall ?
(2) Autonomic movement of locomotion (1) Pollen grain
(3) Autonomic movement of variation (2) Microspore mother cell
(4) Paratonic movement of growth (3) Male gamete
(4) Egg
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Q.148 Which one of the following elements is not an Q.156 A drop of each of the following, is placed
essential micronutrient for plant growth ? separately on four slides. Which of them will
(1) Ca (2) Mn (3) Zn (4) Cu not coagulate ?
(1) Whole blood from pulmonary vein
Q.149 If you suspect deficiency of antibodies in a
person, to which of the following would you (2) Blood plasma
look for confirmatory evidence ? (3) Blood serum
(1) Haemocytes (4) Sample from the thoracic duct of lymphatic
(2) Serum albumins system
(3) Serum globulins
(4) Fibrinogen in the plasma Q.157 Feeling the tremors of an earthquake a scared
resident of seventh floor of a multistoried
Q.150 Which one of the following is a fat-soluble building starts climbing down the stairs rapidly.
vitamin and its related deficiency disease ? Which hormone initiated this action ?
(1) Calciferol – Pellagra (1) Gastrin (2) Thyroxin
(2) Ascorbic acid – Scurvy (3) Adrenaline (4) Glucagon
(3) Retinol – Xerophthalmia
(4) Cobalamine – Beri-beri Q.158 A person who is on a long hunger strike and is
surviving only on water, will have:-
Q.151 Which one of the following mammalian cells is (1) Less urea in his urine
not capable of metabolizing glucose to carbon-
dioxide aerobically ? (2) More sodium in his urine
(1) Red blood cells (3) Less amino acids in his urine
(2) White blood cells (4) More glucose in his blood
(3) Unstriated muscle cells
(4) Liver cells Q.159 Which one of the following pairs of structures
distinguishes a nerve cell from other types of cell ?
Q.152 Compared to a bull a bullok is docile because of:- (1) Nucleus and mitochondria
(1) Lower levels of adrenalin/noradrenalin in its (2) Perikaryon and dendrites
blood (3) Vacuoles and fibres
(2) Higher levels of thyroxin
(4)Flagellum and medullary sheath
(3) Higher levels of cortisone
(4) Lower levels of blood testosterone Q.160 Which part of ovary in mammals acts as an
endocrine gland after ovulation ?
Q.153 In the human female, menstruation can be
deferred by the administration of:- (1)Vitelline membrane
(1)FSH only (2) Graffian follicle
(2) LH only (3) Stroma
(3) Combination of FSH and LH (4) Germinal epithelium
(4) Combination of estrogen and progesterone
Q.161 During the transmission of nerve impulse
Q.154 In human body, which one of the following is through a nerve fibre, the potential on the inner
anatomically correct ? side of the plasma membrane has which type of
(1) Cranial nerve – 10 pairs electric charge ?
(2) Floating ribs – 2 pairs (1) First positive, then negative and again back
(3)Collar bones – 3 pairs to positive
(4) Salivary glands – 1 pair (2) First negative, then positive and again back
to negative
Q.155 In which one of the following preparations are
you likely to come across cell junctions most (3) First positive, then negative and continue to
frequently ? be negative
(1) Hyaline cartilage (2) Ciliated epithelium (4) First negative, then positive and continue to
(3) Thrombocytes (4) Tendon be positive

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Q.162 A person is having problems with calcium and Q.170 Geometric representation of age structure is a
phosphorus metabolism in his body. Which one characteristic of :-
of the following glands may not be functioning (1) Ecosystem (2) Biotic community
properly ? (3) Population (4) Landscape
(1) Thyroid (2) Parathyroid
(3) Parotid (4) Pancreas Q.171 Which one of the following pairs of organisms
are exotic species introduced in India ?
Q.163 Identify the odd combination of the habitat and (1) Nile perch, Ficus religiosa
the particular animal concerned : (2) Ficus religiosa, Lantana camara
(1) Rann of Kutch – Wild Ass (3) Lantana camara, Water hyacinth
(2) Dachigam National Park – Snow Leopard (4) Water hyacinth, Prosopis cinereria
(3) Sunderbans – Bengal Tiger
(4) Periyar – Elephant Q.172 One of endangered species of Indian medicinal
plants is that of:-
(1) Nepenthes (2) Podophyllum
Q.164 In which one of the following the BOD
(Biochemical Oxygen Demand) of sewage (S), (3) Ocimum (4) Garlic
distillery effluent (DE), paper mill effluent (PE)
Q.173 A genetically engineered micro-organism used
and sugar mill effluent (SE) have been arranged
successfully in bioremediation of oil spills is a
in ascending order ?
species of-
(1) S < DE < PE < SE
(1) Bacillus (2) Pseudomonas
(2) SE < S < PE < DE
(3) Trichoderma (4) Xanthomonas
(3) SE < PE < S < DE
(4) PE < S < SE < DE Q.174 A sequential expression of a set of human genes
occurs when a steroid molecule binds to the:-
Q.165 Which one of the following ecosystem types has (1) Ribosome (2) Transfer RNA
the highest annual net primary productivity ? (3) Messenger RNA (4) DNA sequence
(1) Temperate deciduous forest
(2) Tropical rain forest Q.175 The Okazaki fragments in DNA chain growth:-
(3) Tropical deciduous forest (1) Polymerize in the 5'-to-3' direction and
explain 3'- to 5' DNA replication
(4) Temperate evergreen forest
(2) Result in transcription
(3) Polymerize in the 3'-to-5' direction and
Q.166 Which one of the following is being utilized as a
forms replication fork
source of biodiesel in the Indian country side ?
(1) Pongamia (2) Euphorbia (4) Prove semi-conservative nature of DNA
replication
(3) Beetroot (4) Sugarcane
Q.176 In the hexaploid wheat, the haploid(n) and
Q.167 In a coal fired power plant electrostatic basic(x) numbers of chromosomes are:
precipitators are installed to control emission of:- (1) n = 21 and x = 7 (2) n = 7 and x = 21
(1) CO (2) SO2 (3) NOx (4) SPM (3) n = 21 and x = 21 (4) n = 21 and x = 14

Q.168 Which one of the following is not a bioindicator Q.177 Molecular basis of organ differentiation
of water pollution ? depends on the modulation in transcription by-
(1) Sewage fungus (2) Sludge-worms (1) Anticodon (2) RNA polymerase
(3) Blood-worms (4) Stone flies (3) Ribosome (4) Transcription factor

Q.169 A high density of elephant population in an area Q.178 Telomere repetitive DNA sequences control the
can result in :- function of eukaryote chromosomes because
they:
(1) Predation on one another
(1) Prevent chromosome loss
(2) Mutualism
(2) Act as replicons
(3) Intra specific competition
(3) Are RNA transcription initiator
(4) Inter specific competition
(4) Help chromosome pairing
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Q.179 Inheritance of skin colour in humans is an Q.186 The length of DNA molecule greatly exceeds
example of:- the dimensions of the nucleus in eukaryotic
(1) Codominance cells. How is this DNA accommodated ?
(2) Chromosomal aberration (1) Through elimination of repetitive DNA
(3) Point mutation (2) Deletion of non-essential genes
(4) Polygenic inheritance (3) Super-coiling in nucleosomes
(4) DNase digestion
Q.180 A common test to find the genotype of a hybrid
is by:- Q.187 In cloning of cattle a fertilized egg is taken out
(1) Crossing of one F1 progeny with male parent of the mother's womb and:-
(2) Crossing of one F2 progeny with male parent (1) From this upto eight identical twins can be
(3) Crossing of one F2 progeny with female produced
parent (2) The egg is divided into 4 pairs of cells
(4) Studying the sexual behaviour of F1 which are implanted into the womb of other
progenies cows
(3) In the eight cell stage, cells are separated
Q.181 During transcription, RNA polymerase and cultured until small embryos are
holoenzyme binds to a gene promoter and formed which are implanted into the womb
assumes a saddle-like structure. What is it's of other cows.
DNA-binding sequence ? (4) In the eight cell stage the individual cells
(1) TATA (2) TTAA are separated under electrical field for
(3) AATT (4) CACC further development in culture media

Q.182 Two genes R and Y are located very close on the Q.188 Which one of the following statements is correct ?
chromosomal linkage map of maize plant. When (1) At present it is not possible to grow maize
RRYY and rryy genotypes are hybridized, the F2 without chemical fertilizers
segregation will show:- (2) Extensive use of chemical fertilizers may
(1) Higher number of the parental types lead to eutrophication of nearby water
(2) Higher number of the recombinant types bodies
(3) Segregation in the expected 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 ratio (3) Both Azotobacter and Rhizobium fix
atmospheric nitrogen in root nodules of
(4) Segregation in 3 : 1 ratio
plants
Q.183 In maize, hybrid vigour is exploited by:- (4) Cyanobacteria such as Anabaena and
nostoc are important mobilizers of
(1) Inducing mutations
phosphates and potassium for plant
(2) Bombarding the seeds with DNA nutrition in soil
(3) Crossing of two inbred parental lines
(4) Harvesting seeds from the most productive Q.189 The population of an insect species shows an
plants explosive increase in numbers during rainy
season followed by its disappearance at the end
Q.184 Differentiation of organs and tissues in a of the season. What does this show ?
developing organism, is associated with- (1) The population of its predators increases
(1) Deletion of genes enormously
(2) Developmental mutations (2) S-shaped or sigmoid growth of this insect
(3) Differential expression of genes (3) The food plants mature and die at the end
(4) Lethal mutations of the rainy season
(4) Its population growth curve is of J-type
Q.185 In pea plants, yellow seeds are dominant to
green. If a heterozygous yellow seeded plant is
crossed with a green seeded plant, what ratio of Q.190 The two polynucleotide chain in DNA are:-
yellow and green seeded plants would you (1) Semiconservative
expect in F1 generation ? (2) Parallel
(1) 3 : 1 (2) 50 : 50 (3) Discontinuous
(3) 9 : 1 (4) 1 : 3 (4) Antiparallel

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Q.191 A plant requires magnesium for: Q.196 Which one of the following pairs is wrongly
(1) Cell wall development matched ?
(2) Holding cells together (1) Coliforms – Vinegar
(3) Protein synthesis (2) Methanogens – Gobar gas
(4) Chlorophyll synthesis (3) Yeast – Ethanol
(4) Streptomycetes – Antibiotic
Q.192 Probiotics are-
(1) Live microbial food supplement Q.197 Which one of the following pairs is mismatched ?
(2) Safe antibiotics (1) Bombyx mori – Silk
(3) Cancer inducting microbes (2) Pila globosa – Pearl
(4) New kind of food allergens (3) Apis indica – Honey
(4) Kenia lacca – Lac
Q.193 Bowman's glands are located in the
(1) Olfactory epithelium of our nose Q.198 Which one of the following is a viral disease of
(2) Proximal end of uriniferous tubules poultry ?
(3) Anterior pituitary (1) Pasteurellosis (2) Salmonellosis
(4) Female reproductive system of cockroach (3) Coryza (4) New Castle disease

Q.194 Increased asthmatic attacks in certain seasons are Q.199 Ultrasound of how much frequency is beamed
related to: into human body for sonography ?
(1) Low temperature (1) 45 – 70 MHz (2) 30 – 45 MHz
(2) Hot and humid environment (3) 15 – 30 MHz (4) 1 – 15 MHz
(3) Eating fruits preserved in tin containers Q.200 Lysozyme that is present in perspiration, saliva
(4) Inhalation of seasonal pollen and tears, destroys:
(1) Most virus – infected cells
Q.195 A human male produces sperms with the
genotypes AB, Ab, AB, and ab pertaining to two (2) Certain fungi
diallelic characters in equal proportions. What is (3) Certain types of bacteria
the corresponding genotype of this person ? (4) All viruses
(1) AABB (2)AaBb
(3) AaBB (4) AABb

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ANSWER KEY (AIPMT-2007)

Ques. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans 1 1 2 4 2 3 3 2 3 3 3 1 4 1 1 3 4 2 1 4
Ques. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans 1 2 1 2 3 4 4 1 2 3 3 4 2 3 3 2 4 2 2 2
Ques. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans 3 2 3 3 1 2 2 4 1 1 4 2 1 4 4 1 2 3 1 4
Ques. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans 4 2 4 3 2 3 3 2 3 1 1 3 3 2 3 2 4 2 3 4
Ques. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans 2 4 4 4 1 3 2 1 3 3 1 1 2 1 3 4 1 2 1 2
Ques. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Ans 2 2 2 4 4 3 2 2 3 3 4 1 2 2 1 3 2 2 3 1
Ques. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Ans 1 3 3 1 4 1 1 2 2 3 3 2 3 1 2 2 1 1 2 1
Ques. 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
Ans 3 2 3 1 2 2 2 1 3 3 1 4 4 2 2 3 3 1 2 2
Ques. 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
Ans 2 2 2 2 2 1 4 4 3 3 3 2 2 4 1 1 4 1 4 1
Ques. 181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
Ans 1 1 3 3 2 3 3 2 4 4 4 1 1 4 2 1 2 4 4 3

HINTS & SOLUTIONS

V J ML2T −2
1. R= = ≡ = ML2T–3I–2 5. By using v = u + at,
I IC I 2T
v
dv  t 0 = v –µgt ⇒ t =
2. Acceleration = f = f0 1 −  µg
dt  T
T
6. Net work done = work done by gravitational
v t
⇒ ∫ 0
dv = f 0 ∫ 0
1 − dt
 T
force + work done by spring force
1
T = mg(h + d) – Kd 2
 t 2   2  2
⇒ v = f0  t − = f  T − T  = 1 f 0T
 0  2T  2 1 2 1
 2T  0  7. θ = ωt + αt = (2) (2) + (3)(2)2
2 2
Total distance = 4 + 6 = 10 rad
3. Average speed =
Total time
2d 2vd v u r r r r
= = 8. Q | A × B | = 3 (A.B)
d d vd + v u
+
vu vd ∴ AB sinθ = 3AB cos θ
⇒ tanθ = 3 ⇒ θ = 60º
4.
y 9. x = 9t2 – t3 ∴ v = 18t – 3t2
( 3 ,3) dv
⇒ = 18 – 6 t
dt
3 dv d2v
for maximum speed = 0 , and 2 negative
3 3 dt dt
so 18 – 6t = 0 ⇒ t = 3s
θ
x at t = 3s, x = 9(3)2 – (3)3 = 81 – 27 = 54 m
(0, 0) 3
3 10. For given conditions mg = mω2a = ka
tan θ = = 3
3 mg 2 × 10
⇒a= = = 0.1 = 10 cm
⇒ θ = 60º k 200
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11. As perpendicular distance from origin is constant 22.
so LA = LB
3
l  ml 2  3g
12. Q τ = Iα ∴ (mg) =  α⇒α= .
2  3  2l θC
5
GMm 4
13. K.E. = ⇒ Kinetic energies are unequal θC
2r
2πr 3 / 2
T= ⇒ Time period are equal 1 3 5
GM = sinθC = ⇒ µ =
µ 5 3
GMm
P.E. = – ⇒ Potential energies are unequal c 3 × 108 9
r ⇒v= = = × 108
µ 5/3 5
GM
v= ⇒ Orbital speeds are equal = 1.8 × 108 ms–1
r
σ( 4πr 2 )T 4 σr 2 ( t + 273) 4 23. W = ∆U = Q(VD – VC) here VC = 0
14. Solar constant = =
(4πR 2 ) R2  q q  − Qq
=Q  − − 0 =
T2 1 T  4π ∈0 (3L) 4π ∈0 ( L)  6π ∈0 L
15. η=1– ⇒ = 1− 2
T1 6 T1
1 (T − 62) 1 T 62 q
and = 1− 2 ⇒ = 1− 2 + 24. φtotal = φcurved + φplane surfaces =
3 T1 3 T1 T1 ∈0
1 1 62 1 62 q 1 q 
⇒ = + = = φ + 2φA = ⇒ φA =  − φ 
3 6 T1 6 T1 ∈0 2  ∈0 

16. E = σT4 ∴ E ∝ (727 + 273)4 ⇒ E ∝ (1000)4

25. Magnitute = p 2 + p 2 = 2 p = 2qa
c c
17. Refractive index µ = = Direction is shown in figure.
v vλ
Direction of
3 × 108 y Resultant dipole
= =3
2 × 10 × 5000 × 10 −10
14
moment

q
18. If v = v0sinωt then a = a0 cosωt (0, a, 0) (a, a,0)
r
π p2
⇒ phase difference = = 0.5π
2 –q q
19. Q K.E. = K0cos2ωt –q r x
p1 (a, 0, 0)
∴ Maximum P.E. = Maximum K.E.
26. Work done
in charging fully both the
= Total energy = K0
1 1C 3
20. Q x = asinωt condensers = CV 2 +  V 2 = CV 2
2 2 2  4
a π
∴ = aisnωt ⇒ ωt = 27.
2 6
 2π  π T 6Ω
⇒  t = ⇒ t = ≡
2Ω
≡
6Ω
 T  6 12 3Ω
r r 4Ω 18V
4Ω 18V 18V
21. In EM waves E and B are in same phase and
perpendicular to each other. V 2 (18) (18)
Total power dissipated = =
R 6
= 54 W

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28. m = ZIt = (30 × 10–5) (1.5) (10 × 60) = 0.27 gm 38. Above curie temperature ferromagnetic material
behaves as paramagnetic material.
TC + Ti T 1
29. Q Tn = & TC = 0ºC ∴ Tn = i 39. No. of photoelectrons or intensity ∝
2 2 ( distance ) 2

30. for balanced wheatstone bridge circuit P 2 × 10 −3

40. n= = = 5 × 1015
2 2 hv 6.62 × 10 −34 × 6 × 1014
= ⇒ S + 6 = 3S ⇒ S = 3Ω
2  6S  41. Radius of semicircular path
 
S+6
mv 2mqV
R= =
qB qB
31.
100A 13Ω
As V and B are constant so
mq q 1
650A
Rα ⇒ ∝ 2
R q m R
13 × 100 = 650 × R 42. Q R = R0A1/3
⇒ R = 2Ω 1/ 3 1/ 3
R Te  125   53  5
∴ =  =  3  =
R Al  27  3  3
2πm
32. T= which is independent of both R and v.
qB 5
⇒ RTe =   (3.6) = 6 fm
3
 qv  2
33. Magnetic moment M = IA =  (πR ) N A N 0 e −λ A t e −5λt
 2πR  45. = = −λt
qvR
N B N 0 e −λ B t e
=
2 1 1 1
⇒ = ⇒t=
34. In magnetic field a charged particle moves in a e 4 λt e 2 2λ
circular orbit.
46. Total energy in first excited state
35. Induced emf in primary coil 13.4
=– = – 3.4 eV
4
dφ d
EP = = (φ0 + 4 t ) = 4 volt K.E. in first excited state = – total energy in that
dt dt state = – (–3.4) = 3.4 eV
Induced emf in secondary coil
R 
ES NS E 1500 48. Voltage gain = (β)  0  = 50
= ⇒ S = ⇒ ES = 120 volt  Ri 
EP NP 4 50
(50)(100)
⇒β= = 25
(200)
R   200 
36. Current is maximum at resonance Power gain = (β2)  0  = (25) 2  
 Ri   100 
1 1
⇒ ω2 = ⇒L= 2 = 625 × 2 = 1250
LC ωC
1 49. For given logic circuit
= = 0.1H = 100mH
(1000) 2 (10 × 10 −6 )
Y = A + B = A + B ⇒ OR gate

37. The efficiency of transformer 50. For cubic crystal structure

VI 100 a = b = c & α = β = γ = 90º
η = S S × 100 = × 100 ≈ 90%
VP I P 220 × 0.5

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