21-09-2025

1016CMD303085250012 MD

PHYSICS

1) A body of mass m starting from rest from origin moves along x-axis with constant power (P). Then
relation between velocity and time is :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

2) A block is released from rest from a height h = 5m. After travelling through the smooth curved
surface it moves on the rough horizontal surface through a length ℓ = 8 m and climbs onto the other

smooth curved surface through a height h'. If μ = 0.5, find h' :-

(1) 2 m
(2) 3 m
(3) 1 m
(4) zero

3) A uniform flexible chain of mass m and length 2ℓ hangs in equilibrium over a smooth horizontal
pin of negligible diameter. One end of the chain is given a small vertical displacement so that the
chain slips over the pin. The speed of chain when it leaves pin is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

4) Amount of work done to carry a block from A to B will be (Assume friction coefficient μ)

(1) mgh
(2)
(3)
(4)

5) A body of mass m = 10–2 kg is moving in a medium and experience a frictional force F = –kv2. its

0
initial speed is v = 10 ms–1. After 10s, its kinetic energy is , then value of k will be :-

(1) 10–1 kg m–1 s–1

(2) 10–3 kg m–1
(3) 10–3 kg s–1
(4) 10–4 kg m–1

6) The potential energy of a particle of mass 5 kg moving in the x – y plane is given by U = (–7x +
24y)J, where x and y are given in metre. If the particle starts from rest, from the origin, then the
speed of the particle at t = 2 s is

(1) 5 m/s
(2) 14 m/s
(3) 17.5 m/s
(4) 10 m/s

7) The existence of a negative charge on a body implies that it has :-

(1) lost some of its electrons

(2) lost some of its protons
(3) acquired some electrons from outside
(4) acquired some protons from outside

8) Net electric field intensity at centre O is –

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) Let A and B are two identical objects of same mass. initially are charged by rubbing against each
other. Let A has got positive charge and B has gets negative charge then match column-I and
column-II
 Column-I Column-II

i. mass of A a. increases

ii. mass of B b. decreases

iii. Work function of A c. is less

iv. work function of B d. is more

(1) i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a
(2) i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c
(3) i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d
(4) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b

10) A small circular ring has a uniform charge distribution. On a far-off axial point distance x from
the centre of the ring, the electric field is proportional to :-

(1) x–1
(2) x–3/2
(3) x–2
(4) x5/4

11) Two point charges –4Q and 9Q are placed at a distance 2m from each other. The position at
which net electric field is zero from the charge –4Q is –

(1) 3m
(2) 4m
(3) 2m
(4) 1m

12) Two small spheres have mass m1 and m2 and hanging from massless insulating threads of lengths
ℓ1 and ℓ2. Two sphere carry charges Q1 and Q2 respectively. The spheres hang such that they are on
the same horizontal level and the threads are inclined to the vertical at angle θ1 and θ2 respectively.
Which of the following condition is true if m1 = m2.

(1) θ1 = θ2
(2) q1 = q2

(3)

(4)

13) The figure below shows the forces that three charged particles exert on each other. Which of the
four situations shown can be correct.
(I) (II)

(III) (IV)

(1) all of the above

(2) None of the above
(3) II, III
(4) II, III & IV

14) –1 × 10–6 C charge is on a drop of water having mass 10–6 kg. What electric field should be
applied on the drop so that it is in the balanced condition with its weight ?

(1) 10 V/m upward

(2) 10 V/m downward
(3) 0.1 V/m downward
(4) 0.1 V/m upward

15) For the figure shown, what is the ratio of the charges , where the figure shown has a
representation of the field lines in the space near the charges.

(1) 4/3
(2) 1/3
(3) 2/3
(4) 3/2

16) Two identical positive point charge placed on x-axis the variation of E along x-axis.
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) Assertion : In electrostatics electric field lines are always perpendicular to surface of charged
metallic conductor.
Reason : In electrostatics, surface of charged metallic conductor is always equipotential surface.

(1) If both Assertion & Reason are true & the reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is true but the Reason is false
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are false

18) (a) Electric line of force can not crossed metal surface.
(b) Electric line of force perpendicular to metal surface.
(c) On a metal surface distribution of charge is always uniform.
(d) On spherical metal surface distribution of charge may be nonuniform.
In above statements which of following will be correct :-

(1) a and b
(2) a, b, c
(3) a, b, d
(4) all a, b, c, d

19) Two small identical spheres having charges +10µC and –90µC attact each other with a force of F
newton. If they are kept in contact and then separated by the same distance, the new force between
them is :-

(1)

(2) 16 F
(3)

(4) 9F

20)
In given system of point charge which of following statement is correct.
(a) For any value of q0, q0 charge will be in equilibrium.
(b) For any value of q0 system will be in equilibrium.
(c) If q0 is in equilibrium then q1 and q2 are like.
(d) If q1 and q2 are unlike then given system can not be in equilibrium.

(1) a and b
(2) a and c
(3) a, c, d
(4) a, d

21)
For what value of q given system will be in equilibrium.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) In given system of point charges, +q1 is placed at (1, 2) and +q2 is placed at (–2, 3). If net force

on – q is along + y then will be

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
23) The magnitude of electric field at the centre of regular hexagon.

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4) zero

24) From the photo electric effect experiment following observations are made, identify which of
these are correct :
(A) The stopping potential depends only on the work function of the metal.
(B) The saturation current increases as the intensity of incident light of given frequency increases.
(C) The maximum kinetic energy of a photoelectron depends on the intensity of the incident light.
(D) Photoelectric effect can be explained using wave theory of light.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) B, C only
(2) A, C, D only
(3) B only
(4) A, B, D only

25) A nucleus with mass number 242 and binding energy per nucleon as 7.6 MeV breaks into
fragments each with mass number 121. If each fragment nucleus has binding energy per nucleon as
8.1 MeV the total gain in binding energy is _____ MeV

(1) 121
(2) 250
(3) 50
(4) 43

26) The de-Broglie wavelength of a molecule in a gas at room temperature (300 K) is λ1. If the
temperature of the gas is increased to 600 K then the de-Broglie wavelength of the same gas
molecule becomes :

(1)

(2) 2λ1

(3)
(4)

27) A nucleus disintegrates into two smaller parts, which have their velocities in the ratio 3 : 2. The

ratio of their nuclear sizes will be . The value of x is :

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

28) A radioactive element emits two α-particles one electron and two positrons. The product
nucleus is represented by . The value of P is :

(1) 85
(2) 84
(3) 86
(4) 87

29) Monochromatic light of frequency 6 × 1014 Hz is produced by a laser. The emitted power is 2 ×
10–3 W. How many photons per second on an average are emitted by the source [h = 6.63 × 10–34]

(1) 9 × 1018
(2) 6 × 1015
(3) 5 × 1015
(4) 7 × 1016

30) Shown in the figure are the position time graph for two children going home from the school.
Which of the following statements about their relative motion is true after both of them started
moving?

There relative velocity : (consider 1-D motion)

(1) first increases and then decreases

(2) first decreases and then increases
(3) is zero
(4) is non zero constant

31) A body is thrown up in a lift with a velocity u relative to the lift and the time of flight is found to
be 't'. The acceleration with which the lift is moving up will be :

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

32) For four particles A, B, C & D, the velocities of one with respect to other are given as is 20
m/s towards north, is 20 m/s towards east and is 20 m/s towards south. Then is :

(1) 20 m/s towards north

(2) 20 m/s towards south
(3) 20 m/s towards east
(4) 20 m/s towards west

33) Two fixed frictionless inclined planes making an angle 30° and 60° with the vertical are shown in
the figure. Two blocks A and B are placed on the two planes. What is the relative vertical

acceleration of A with respect to B ?

(1) 4.9 ms–2 in horizontal direction

(2) 9.8 ms–2 in vertical direction
(3) zero
(4) 4.9 ms–2 in vertical direction

34) Figure I, II, III and IV depict variation of force with time :

The impulse is highest in the case of situations depicted. Figure :

(1) I and II
(2) III and I
(3) III and IV
(4) IV only

35) Which one of the following statements is not true ?

(1) The same force for the same time causes the same change in momentum for different bodies.
The rate of change of momentum of a body is directly proportional to the applied force and
(2)
takes place in the direction in which the force acts.
A greater opposing force is needed to stop a heavy body than a light body in the same time, if
(3)
they are moving with the same speed.
The greater the change in the momentum in a given time, the lesser is the force that needs to be
(4)
applied.

36) An airplane is moving horizontally with constant acceleration 5 m/s2 with a block of mass 2kg is
hanging with it, which is at rest w.r.t. plane find angle θ which string makes with vertical?

(1) tan θ = 2
(2) cot θ = 2

(3)

(4)

37) All surfaces are smooth. Find value of F so that there is no relative motion between 2 kg and 10

kg.

(1) 200 N
(2) 225 N
(3) 125 N
(4) None of these
38) In shown situation elevator is moving upward with acceleration of 5 m/s2.

Column I Column II

(1) Net force acting on B (P) 150 N

(2) Normal reaction between A and B (Q) 300 N

(3) Normal reaction between B and C (R) 450 N

(4) Normal reaction between C and elevator (S) 750 N

(T) 1500 N

(1) (1)-P (2)-Q (3)-S (4)-T

(2) (1)-Q (2)-Q (3)-R (4)-T
(3) (1)-P (2)-R (3)-S (4)-S
(4) (1)-Q (2)-R (3)-R (4)-T

39) In the situation shown, all surfaces are frictionless and triangular wedge is free to move. In list-II
the direction of certain vectors are shown. Match the direction of quantities in list-I with possible

vector in list-II.

List-I List-II

(A) Acceleration of the block X relative to ground (P)

(B) Acceleration of block X relative to wedge (Q)

(C) Normal force by block on wedge (R)

(D) Net force on the wedge (S)

(1) A→Q; B→P; C→R; D→S

(2) A→S; B→P; C→Q; D→R
(3) A→P; B→Q; C→S; D→R
(4) A→R; B→S; C→P; D→Q

40) In List-I blocks are initially at rest on rough horizontal floor, and forces are applied on the
blocks at t = 0 as shown. List-II represents friction, acceleration and speed of blocks. Match the
correct option(s) of both list : (g = 10 m/s2)

List-I List-II

Friction
acting on
(P) (1)
block is
20 N

Acceleration
(Q) (2) of block is
zero

Speed of
block after
(R) (3)
3 sec is
9 m/s

Friction
acting on
(S) (4)
block is
10 N

Acceleration
(5) of block
is 3 m/s2
(1) P → 2,4; Q → 1,3,5; R → 1,2; S→ 3,4,5
(2) P → 2,4; Q → 2,3,5; R → 1,3; S → 1,2,3
(3) P → 1,5; Q → 1,3,5; R → 2,4; S → 2,4
(4) P → 3,4; Q → 3,4,5; R → 4,5; S → 2,3,5

41) Assertion (A) :- Magnitude of contact force is always greater than the magnitude of non-zero
friction force.
Reason (R) :- Contact force is the resultant of the friction force & normal reaction.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are false

42) Two forces are acting on a rope lying on a smooth table as shown in figure.

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

I. In moving from A to B, tension on string decreases from 2F to F.
II. Situation will becomes indeterminant, if we take it a massless string.

(1) Only I
(2) Only II
(3) Both I and II
(4) None of these

43)

On a planet particle is thrown with a velocity . Then match the list.

List-I List-II
(P) Time of flight (1) 3
Time when particle is moving at an angle of 53° with horizontal in upwards
(Q) (2) 10
direction.
(R) Range of the particle (3) 50
(S) Maximum height of the particle (4) 60
(1) P → 2; Q → 1; R → 4; S → 3
(2) P → 1; Q → 2; R → 3; S → 4
(3) P → 2; Q → 3; R → 4; S → 1
(4) P → 2; Q → 4; R → 1; S → 3

44) A particle is projected obliquley from horizontal surface it just clear a goal post as shown in

figure then its range is :

(1) 240 m
(2) 420 m
(3) 120 M
(4) None of these

45) In the diagram shown, match the following (g = 10 m/s2) Blocks are on smooth incline. F1 and F2
are parallel to the inclined plane. The motion of the blocks is along the incline the surface.
 Column-I Column-II
(a) Acceleration of 2 kg block (p) 39 SI unit
(b) Net force on 3 kg block (q) 25 SI unit
Normal reaction between
(c) (r) 2 SI unit
2 kg and 1 kg
Normal reaction between
(d) (s) 6 SI unit
3 kg and 2 kg
(1) a → r; b → p; c → q; d → s
(2) a → p; b → r; c → q; d → s
(3) a → q; b → p; c → r; d → s
(4) a → s; b → p; c → q; d → r

CHEMISTRY

1)
Choose the correct statement

(1) I & II have R configuration

(2) I & III are enantiomers
(3) II & III are enantiomers
(4) all are identical

2)

Which of the following does not show geometrical isomerism ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3)

Consider following molecule “A” & find x, y & z in given newman’s projection respectively:
(1) CH3, CH3 and H
(2) CH3, H and CH3
(3) H, CH3 and CH3
(4) CH3, CH3 and CH3

4) Which of the following statement is NOT correct:-

(1)
and
are functional group isomers

(2)
and
are metamers

(3) and
are metamers

(4) and
are chain isomers

5)

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

6) Consider the following two structure of anilinium ion and select the correct statement about

them:-

II is not an acceptable canonical structure because carbocation are less stable than ammonium
(1)
ions.
(2) II is not an acceptable canonical structure because it is non aromatic.
(3) II is not an acceptable canonical structure because the nitrogen has 10 valence electrons.
(4) II is an acceptable canonical structure.
7) Which is most stable resonating structure of :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8)
Compare acidic strength :-

(1) a > c > d > b

(2) d > a > c > b
(3) d > c > a > b
(4) d > c > b > a

9) Which cationic species is more stable in each of the following pairs ?

(1) 1 and 3
(2) 1 and 4
(3) 2 and 4
(4) 2 and 3

10) Which of the following is correct decreasing order of Acidic strength :-

(1) HCOOH>CH3COOH>H2CO3>C6H5COOH
(2) HCOOH>C6H5COOH>CH3COOH>H2CO3
(3) HCOOH>H2CO3>CH3COOH>C6H5COOH
(4) CH3COOH>HCOOH>C6H5COOH>H2CO3

11) Which of following compounds forms highly unstable enol ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) Which are not the pair of resonating structure ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
13) Compare relative stability of the following resonating structure :

(p) (q) (r)

(1) p > q > r

(2) q > p > r
(3) q > r > p
(4) p > r > q

14) Which of the following shows minimum heat of combustion ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15)

Which of the following not give CO2 gas with NaHCO3 ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) Which σ complex is most stable :

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

17)
Major product "C" in above reaction sequence:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) Arrange the following in decreasing order of reactivity towards bromination

(1) ii > i > iv > iii
(2) iv > ii > i > iii
(3) i > ii > iii > iv
(4) iv > iii > ii > i

19) How many compounds Not show Friedel-Craft reaction :

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

20) ,
Find out C :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21)

Which reaction show incorrect product.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) Product
product is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

23) Give the correct order of reagent in following reaction respectively :-

(1) , CH3 – Cl + AlCl3,

Zn – Hg + HCl
Zn – Hg / HCl, CH3 – Cl + AlCl3,
(2)

(3)
, Zn-Hg/HCl, CH3 – Cl + AlCl3
(4) All are correct

24) In the reaction the major product formed is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
25) :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) Substitution takes place at the position.

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) Both (1) and (3)

27) The major product formed in the reaction

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

28) Number of compound which show tautomerism :-

(1) 7
(2) 6
(3) 5
(4) 9

29) Number of moles of Mn3O4 that will require to react completely with 1 mol of FeC2O4.Fe2(C2O4)3
in presence of H2SO4

(1) 9 mol
(2) 9/5 mol
(3) 4.5 mol

(4)
mol

30) What will be the EMF for the given cell ?

Pt(|H2(g),P1)|H+(aq,1M)||H+(aq.,1M)|(H2(g),P2)|Pt(s)

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

31) The standard reduction potential values of three metallic cations, X,Y,Z are 0.52, –3.03 and –1.18
V respectively. The order of reducing power of the corresponding metals is :-

(1) Y > Z > X

(2) X > Y > Z
(3) Z > Y > X
(4) Z > X > Y

32) When an aqueous solution of CuSO4 is stirred with a silver spoon then :-

(1) Cu+ will be formed

(2) Ag+ will be formed
(3) Cu2+ will be deposited
(4) None of these

33) What will be the theoretical change in cell potential of a

cell when its temperature is increased

(1) increase
(2) decrease
(3) no change
(4) cannot be said

34) Given that = –0.763 volt and

= –0.44 volt, then the E.M.F. of the cell (0.001 M) is :-

(1) Equal to 0.323 volt

(2) Less than 0.323 volt
(3) Greater than 0.323 volt
(4) None of these

35) How much will the oxidation potential of a hydrogen electrode change when its solution initially
at pH = 0 is neutralised to pH = 7 ?

(1) increases by 0.059 V

(2) decreases by 0.059 V
(3) increases by 0.413 V
(4) decreases by 0.413 V

36) Calculate given

 = –1.51V and

(1) –1.69V
(2) 1.69
(3) 0.28
(4) –0.28

37) Following figure shows dependence of molar conductance of two electrolytes on concentration.

is the limiting molar conductivity. The number of Incorrect

statement(s) from the following is ________

(1) for electrolyte A is obtained by extrapolation

(2) For electrolyte B, vs graph is a straight line with intercept equal to
(3) At infinite dilution, the value of degree of dissociation approaches maximum for electrolyte B.
(4) for any electrolyte A or B can be calculated using λ° for individual ions.

38) Assertion: In Daniell cell, electrons flow from Zn rod to Cu rod.

Reason: Zn rod acts as cathode and Cu rod acts as anode in Daniell cell.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

39) Saturated solution of KNO3 is used to make 'salt-bridge' because :

(1) velocity of K+ is greater than that of

(2) velocity of is greater than that of K+
(3) velocity of both K+ and are nearly the same
(4) KNO3 is high soluble in water

40) Assertion : Specific conductivity of all electrolytes decreases on dilution.

Reason : On dilution number of ions per unit volume decreases.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but reason is not correct explanation of Assertion
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true

41) Given

correct value of BaSO4 is

(1) x+2y–z Scm2eq–1

(2) (x+y–z) Scm2eq–1
(3) x+y–2z Scm2eq–1
(4) 2x+y–z Scm2eq–1

42) The metal that can not be obtained by electrolysis of an aqueous solution of its salts is :

(1) Zn
(2) Mn
(3) Cd
(4) Co

43) For the cell reaction with the indicated concentrations

the measured voltage (Ecell) is 1.50 volt. Calculate

E°cell.

Given : = 0.06 ; log 3 = 0.48

(1) 1.5496 volt

(2) 1.654 volt
(3) 1.4032 volt
(4) None of these

44) The emf of the cell,

Tl(s)|Tl+(aq) (0.0001 M)|| Cu2+(aq)(0.01M) | Cu(s) is 0.83 V
The emf of this cell will be increased by :–

(1) Increasing the concentration of Cu++ ions

(2) Decreasing the concentration of Tl+
(3) Increasing the concentration of both
(4) (1) & (2) both

45) From the following data -

(A) For same conductivity cell, cell constant (G*) will not change.
(B) λm = K × V; where V is volume of solution in which 1g equivalent electrolytic solute is present; K
is specific conductivity & λm is molar conductivity.
(C) Ionic mobility of H+(aq) is less than
(D) Kohlrousch law is applicable for all type of electrolytes at infinite dilution.
(E) E°cell depends on stoicheometry coefficient of cell reaction.
(F) In conductivity cell AC source is used because in DC; deposition of ions may occur.
(G) At 600K; Ecell can be calculated by Nernst equation.

The correct statements is :

(1) 3
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 2

BIOLOGY

1) Match the following three columns giving some information/detail about the vertebrate's heart.

Column I Column II Column III

One atrium, & Two

i Pisces a. 3 chambered A
ventricles

ii Amphibians b. 2 chambered B 2 atria, & 1 ventricle

iii Reptiles c. 4 chambered C 1 atrium, & 1 ventricle

iv Aves d. single chambered D 2 atria, & 2 ventricles

(1) i-b-C, ii-c-D, iii-a-B, iv-c-B
(2) i-b-B, ii-a-B, iii-a-C, iv-c-D
(3) i-b-B, ii-b-C, iii-b-C, iv-a-B
(4) i-b-C, ii-a-B, iii-a-B, iv-c-D

2) Choose the correct and wrong statements about the artery :-

a. carry deoxygenated blood without any exception
b. carry blood towards heart
c. carry oxygenated blood with exception
d. carry blood from heart towards organs
e. is highly muscular

(1) Correct a, b, c wrong d, e

(2) Correct c, d, e wrong a, b
(3) Correct a, c, e wrong d, b
(4) Correct a, b, d wrong c, e

3)

Read the following statement :-

(A) The hepatic portal vein carries blood from intestine to the liver.
(B) Adrenal medullary hormones can also decrease the cardiac output.
(C) During a cardiac cycle, both ventricle pumps out approximately 5 L of blood.
How many statements are correct ?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) All

4)

Choose the correct option for X, Y, Z and P :-

May receive May donate

Blood Group
blood from blood to

O O Z

A X A, AB

B B, O B, AB

AB Y P

X Y Z P

(1) A,O A,B,AB,O A,B,AB,O AB

(2) A,O A,B,AB,O A,B,AB,O A,B

(3) B A,B,AB,O A,B,AB,O AB

(4) AB A,B, AB,O A,B,AB,O AB

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

5) Read the following properties of blood corpuscles:-

(a) They are colourless due to lack of haemoglobin
(b) They are non-nucleated
(c) They are relatively lesser in number which averages 6000-8000 mm–3 of blood
(d) They have long life span approx 120 days.
Out of these which properties are not shown by leukocytes ?
Options :-

(1) 'a' and 'b'

(2) 'b' and 'c'
(3) 'b' and 'd'
(4) 'c' and 'd'

6) Which of the following substances are required for the start of coagulation of blood in mammals?
(1) Thrombin and sodium ions
(2) Fibrin and iron ions
(3) Thromboplastin and calcium ions
(4) Heparin and fibrinogen

7) Which of the following statement is wrong ?

(1) Cardiac output of a person varies according to his physiological demand.

(2) Stroke volume of heart is almost equal to cardiac output
(3) Stroke volume is amount of blood pumped by the left ventricle in the systemic aorta in one beat.
(4) End systolic volume is about 50 ml.

8)

Which statement is correct ?

(a) Cardiac output of an athelete is higher than an ordinary man.
(b) Body has the ability to alter the stroke volume as well as the heart rate.
(c) Stoke volume multiplied by the heart rate gives the cardiac output.

(1) a and b
(2) a, b and c
(3) b and c
(4) a and c

9) Correct sequence of events during ventricular systole is ?

(1) Closure of Atrioventricular valves → opening of semilunar vlaves.

(2) Opening of semilunar vlaves → closure of atrioventricular valves.
(3) Closure of semilunar vlaves → opening of valves.
(4) Opening of atrioventricular vlaves → closure of semilunar valves.

10) Match column-I with column-II and select the correct option from below :-

Column I Column II

(a) Eosinophil (i) Coagulation

(b) RBC (ii) Universal recipient

(c) AB group (iii) Resist infection

(d) Platelet (iv) Contraction of heart

(e) Systole (v) Gas transport

(1) b-v, d-iii, e-iv
(2) c-ii, d-i, e-iv
(3) a-iii, b-v, c-i
(4) a-v, c-i, e-iv
11) Which of the following is correct about 'ECG':-

(1) ECG is a graphical representation of electro-chemical activity of brain.

(2) For the detailed evaluation of heart's function, multiple leads are attached to abdominal region.
By counting the number of QRS complexes that occur in a given time period we can find out
(3)
heart rate.
(4) ECG obtained from different individuals have different shape for a given lead configuration.

12)

Read the following statements (A-D) :-

(A) Arteries always carry blood away from heart.
(B) Valves are absent in the arteries.
(C) Artery always carry deoxygenated blood.
(D) Lumen of artery is wide.
How many statements are wrong ?

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) One
(4) Two

13) Tissue fluid (lymph) has :-

(1) same protein content as that in plasma.

(2) same formed element composition as that in Blood.
(3) same mineral distribution as that in plasma.
(4) same large water soluble substances composition as plasma.

14)

I. Proteins contributes 6 - 8% of the blood plasma.

II. Plasma contains very high amount of platelets
III. Plasma without the clotting factors is called serum.
IV. Glucose, amino acids, lipids, etc also present in the plasma.

In the above statements :-

(1) All are correct
(2) Only II is false
(3) Only I is correct
(4) All are false

15) Match the following columns and choose the correct answer from the options given below

Column (I) Column (II)

Most abundant white blood cells and the

(A) Erythrocytes (i)
main phagocytic cell of the blood
 (B) Eosinophils (ii) Least abundant white blood cells

Resist infections and are associated with

(C) Neutrophils (iii)
allergic reactions

Blood cells that contain hemoglobin and

(D) Basophils (iv)
transport oxygen

Specialized antibody producing white

(E) Lymphocytes (v)
blood cells

A B C D E

(1) iv iii v i ii

(2) i ii iii iv v

(3) ii iii i v iv

(4) iv iii i ii v
(1) 1
(2) 3
(3) 3
(4) 4

16) Carotid artery carries :-

(1) Impure blood to kideneys

(2) Oxygenated blood to brain
(3) Impure blood from brain
(4) Oxygenated blood to heart

17) SA node is called pace maker of the heart, because-

(1) It can change contractile activity generated by AV node

(2) It delays the transmission of impulse between the atria and ventricles.
(3) It gets stimulated when it receives neural signal
(4) It initiates and maintains the rhythmic contractile activity of heart.

18) During cardiac cycle about _____ % of ventricular filling occurs prior to atrial contraction ___%
ventricular filling occurs due to atrial contraction.

(1) 50, 50
(2) 70, 30
(3) 30, 70
(4) 10, 90

19) The rate of heart beat can be increased by

(1) Sympathetic signal

(2) Adrenal medullary hormone
(3) Para sympathetic signal
(4) Both 1 and 2

20) Time period of cardiac cycle in human heart is 0.8 sec. In which of the following condition this
time period is decreased ?
(a) Exercies (b) Infant
(c) Relax condition (d) During food intake

(1) a, b
(2) a, b, c
(3) b, c
(4) d, c

21) During a cardiac cycle, blood pumped by the each ventricle in body is–

(1) 140mL
(2) 70mL
(3) 120mL
(4) 500mL

22) Which of the following is correct representation of hepatic portal system ?

(1) Liver → Hepatic Vein → Inferior vena cava

(2) Intestine → Hepatic portal vein → Liver
(3) Liver → Hepatic portal vein → Intestine
(4) Intestine → Hepatic artery → Liver

23) Assertion :- Saline water is not given to patients of hypertension. Reason :- Saline water can
cause vomiting and may drop blood pressure suddenly causing cardiac arrest.

(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are False.

24)

Open circulatory system is present in

(A) Arthropods (insects)
(B) Annelids
(C) Chordates

(D) Molluscs
(1) C only
(2) C and B
(3) A and B
(4) A and D

25) People who have migrated from the planes to an area adjoining Rohtang pass about six months
back

(1) Suffer from altitude sickness with symptoms like nausea, fatigue etc.
(2) Have the usual RBCs count but their haemoglobin has very high binding affinity to O2.
(3) Have more RBCs and their haemoglobin has a lower binding affinity to O2.
(4) Are not physically fit to play games like football

26)

Read the given statements.

(A) Breathing volumes are estimated by spirometer
(B) High H+ in tissue favours O2 dissociation
(C) Diffusion membrane is made up of three layers
(D) Maximum amount of carbonic anhydrase is found in plasma
Choose the option which includes only the correct statements.

(1) A, B and C
(2) B and D
(3) Only D
(4) B, C and D

27) Given below the spirogram of a healthy person in which ‘X’, 'Y' and 'Z' represents :-

(1) IC, EC & FRC

(2) EC, IC & TLC
(3) FRC, IC & EC
(4) IC, EC & VC

28) How many of the following factors are responsible for increased P50 value ?
(a) Increased
(b) Decreased
(c) Increased H+ concentation
(d) Decreased pH
(e) Increased temperature

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

29) How many of the following statement are not true?

(I) The partial pressure of oxygen in oxygenated blood is 95 mm Hg
(II) The partial pressure of oxygen in alveolar air is 104 mm Hg
(III) The partial pressure of O2 in the alveolar air is 40 mm Hg
(IV) The partial pressure of CO2 in deoxygenated blood is 95 mm Hg

(1) II and I
(2) I, II, and III
(3) I and II
(4) III and IV

30) Read the following statements :-

(A) High H⊕ concentration and higher temperature are favourable for dissociation of oxygen from
oxyhaemoglobin.
(B) Partial pressure of oxygen in alveoli is higher than in tissue.
(C) The maximum volume of air a person can breath in after a forced expiration is vital capacity.
(D) In alveoli low and high are for dissociation of CO2 from carbaminohaemoglobin.
How many statements are correct ?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

31) Under normal condition 1 litre of blood deliver ____ to tissue :-

(1) 4mℓO2
(2) 5mℓ O2
(3) 15 mℓO2
(4) 50 mℓ O2

32) In the given diagram what does A, B and C depicts?

A-Entry of air into the lungs

(1)
B-Ribs and sternum returned to original position C- Diaphragm contracted
 A-Entry of air into the lungs
(2)
B-Ribs and sternum go upwards C- Diaphragm contracted
A-Expulsion of air from lungs.
(3)
B-Ribs and sternum returning to original position, C-Relaxation of diaphragm
A-Air expulsion from lungs
(4)
B-Ribs and sternum go upwards C- Diaphragm relaxed

33)

(1) A-Carboxy compound, B-Carbamino, C-Dissolved form

(2) A-Dissolved form, B-Bicarbonate, C-Carboxy compound
(3) A-Carbamino form, B-Dissolved, C-Carboxy compound
(4) A-Dissolved form, B-Bicarbonate, C-Carbamino compound

34)

Which of the following is most suitable description for trachea -

(1) Straight, extending upto the mid-thoracic cavity and divides at the level of 5th thoracic vertebra.
Straight, extending upto the mid-thoracic cavity and divides at the level of 9th thoracic
(2)
vertebra.
Curved, extending upto upper part of thoracic cavity and divides at the level of 7th cervical
(3)
vertebra
(4) Curved, extending upto the mid-thoracic cavity and divides at the level of 5th thoracic vertebra

35) Which statement is/are correct ? (i) 97% oxygen combines with haemoglobin to form
oxyhaemoglobin.
(ii) 20-25% of CO2 combine with haemoglobin to form carboxyhaemoglobin.
(iii) Each haemoglobin can carry maximum 4 molecule of O2.
(iv)100 ml of oxygenated blood can deliver around 5 ml O2 to tissue under normal physiological
condition.
(v) 1 dl of blood contains approx 15 gm haemoglobin.
How many statements are correct ?

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

36) Match the following and mark the correct options

Animal Respiratory Organ

(A) Earthworm (i) Moist cuticle

(B) Insects (ii) Gills

 (C) Fishes (iii) Lungs

(D) Birds/Reptiles (iv) Tracheal tubes

(1) A-ii B-i C-iv D-iii
(2) A-i B-iv C-ii D-iii
(3) A-i B-iii C-ii D-iv
(4) A-i B-ii C-iv D-iii

37)

Which of the following statement/s is/are correct?

A- A high concentration of carbonic anhydrase is present in RBC.
B- Minute quantities of carbonic anhydrase is present in plasma.
C- Every 100 ml blood delivers approximately 4 ml of CO2 to the tissues
D- 20-25% CO2 is carried by haemoglobin as carbaminohaemoglobin.

(1) A, B and D
(2) A and D
(3) A, B, C and D
(4) Only A

38) What will be the and in the atmospheric air compared to those in the alveolar air ?

(1) lesser, higher

(2) higher, lesser
(3) higher, higher
(4) lesser, lesser

39) In Erythroblastosis foetalis condition A from the mother can leak into the blood of the foetus.
This can be avoided by administering B to the mother immediately after the delivery of the first
child.
In the above paragraph A and B are :-

A B

1 Rh-antigen Rh-antibody

2 Rh-antibody Rh-antigen

3 Rh-antibody Anti-Rh antibodies

4 Anti-Rh antibodies Rh-antigen

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

40) How many cellular layers are present in the diffusion membrane in lungs ?
(1) one
(2) two
(3) three
(4) four

41) If total O2 transported by blood from lungs to cell in a minute is 500 ml. Then the volume of O2
transported by blood found dissolved in plasma is

(1) 970 ml
(2) 15 ml
(3) 1000 ml
(4) 30 ml

42) Some statements are given, read them and choose disorder :-
(i) Allergic condition
(ii) Difficulty in breathing
(iii) Increased IgE
(iv) Wheezing sound

(1) Emphysema
(2) Anthracis
(3) Silicosis
(4) Asthma

43) The given figure shows the respiratory system. Identify the correct structure marked as 1,2,3
and 4 whose contraction initiated the inspiration which in turn increases the volume of thoracic

chamber in the antero–posterior axis :-

(1) 1–Lung
(2) 2–Diaphram
(3) 3–Pleural membranes
(4) 4–Alveoli

44) Refer the given figure and answer the question:-

Which of the following statement is correct regarding the above figure ?

When percentages saturation of haemoglobin is plotted against the partial pressure of oxygen, a
(1)
sigmoid curve is obtained
(2) Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is primarily related to partial pressure of carbon monoxide
(3) The given graph illustrates the amount of HbO2 as similar to Hb at different pO2
(4) None of these

45) Match the column–I with column–II and select the correct option given below :-

Column-I Column-Il

A Tidal volume I 2500-3000 mL

B Inspiratory Reserve volume II 1100-1200 mL

C Expiratory Reserve volume III 500-550 mL

D Residual volume IV 1000-1100 mL

(1) A–III, B–II, C–I, D–IV
(2) A–III, B–I, C–IV, D–II
(3) A–IV, B–III, C–II, D–I
(4) A–I, B–IV, C–II, D–III

46) The given diagram show sectional views of plasma membrane. Find out the labelled part and

their function :-

A B C D

Glycoprotein :-
Tunnel protein :- Lipid :- Cholesterol :-
(1) cell to cell
polar molecule bilayer stability
recognition
 Glycoprotein :- Tunnel protein
Lipid :- Cholesterol :-
(2) cell to cell :- polar
bilayer stability
recognition molecule

Glycoprotein :-
Tunnel protein :- Cholesterol :-
(3) cell to cell Lipid :- bilayer
polar molecule stability
recognition

Glycoprotein :-
Tunnel protein :- Cholesterol :-
(4) Lipid :- bilayer cell to cell
polar molecule stability
recognition

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

47) Select the incorrect statement.

The cell wall determines the shape of the cell and provides a strong structural support to
(1)
prevent the bacterium from bursting or collapsing
(2) The plasma membrane of prokaryotes is structurally similar to that of the eukaryotes
(3) In eukaryotic cells there is an extensive compartmentalisation of cytoplasm
(4) All eukaryotic cells are identical

48) Read the following statements :-

(A) Presence of DNA
(B) Presence of cristae
(C) Presence of ribosomes
(D) Enzymes for carbohydrate synthesis
(E) Site for oxidative phosphorylation
How many of the above statements are common for both mitochondria and chloroplast ?

(1) Five
(2) Four
(3) Two
(4) Three

49) Assertion : In cell membrane lipids are arranged within the membrane with the polar head
towards the outer sides and hydrophobic tails towards the inner part.
Reason : This arrangement ensures that the polar tail of saturated and unsaturated hydrocarbons is
protected from the aqueous environment.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
50) Which is correct option amongst the following statements?
A. Nuclear membrane, chloroplast, mitochondria, microtubules and pili are absent in prokaryotic
cells.
B. Nuclear membrane, chloroplasts, mitochondria, microtubules and pili are present in eukaryotic
cells.
C. Ribosomes are 70S in prokaryotic cells, chloroplast and mitochondria. They are 80s in animal
cells.

(1) A and B are wrong, C is correct

(2) A is correct, B and C are wrong
(3) A and B are correct, C is wrong
(4) A and C are correct, B is wrong

51) How many statements are correct ?

(A) Lipids are arranged within the membrane with the polar head towards the inner part.
(B) Membrane also contains cholesterol.
(C) Erythrocyte membrane has 52% lipid and 40% proteins.
(D) Fluid mosaic model was proposed by Singer and Nicolson.

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

52) Choose the incorrect statement regarding plant cell.

(1) Middle lamella is chiefly made up of calcium pectate.

(2) Secondary cell wall is present outside primary cell wall.
(3) Meristematic cells have only primary cell wall.
(4) Plant cell wall mainly composed of cellulose.

53) Choose the correct for given flow chart:

A B C
(1) ER vesicle Plasma membrane Secretory vesicle
(2) Secretory vesicle Nucleus Plasma membrane
(3) ER vesicle Secretory vesicle Plasma membrane
(4) Secretory vesicle Plasma membrane ER vesicle
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
54) From the column-I, column-II, column-III how many of the following are correctly match –

Column-I Column-II Column-III

Composed of r-RNA Site of protein

(A) Ribosome
and protein synthesis

Network of tiny
tubular structure Site for synthesis
(B) ER
scattered in the for lipid
cytoplasm

Disc shape structure

present on Site of
(C) Kinetochore secondary attachment
constriction of for spindle fibres
chromosome

Membrane bound Present only in

(D) Microbody
minute vesicle plant cell
(1) 3
(2) 2
(3) 1
(4) 4

55) Which of the following is a mismatch?

(1) Endoplasmic reticulum - Divides the intracellular space into two distinct compartments.
(2) Vacuole - contains water, excretory product, sap and other materials not useful for the cell.
Lysosome - Are membrane bound vesicular structures formed by the process of packaging in the
(3)
golgi apparatus.
Golgi apparatus - Important site of formation of lipid in plants and steroidal hormones in animal
(4)
cells.

56) Match the column I with columns II & III :-

Column I Column II Column III

(i) r-RNA &
(A) Cytoskeleton (p) Fatty seeds
proteins
(ii) Only in
(B) Peroxisomes (q) Breakdown of H2O2
Plants
(iii) Protein
(C) Ribosomes (r) Protein Synthesis
filaments
(D) Glyoxysomes (iv) Catalase (s) Mechanical support

Options :-
(1) A-(i)-p, B-(ii)-s, C-(iii)-q, D-(iv)-r
(2) A-(iii)-s, B-(iv)-q, C-(i)-r, D-(ii)-p
(3) A-(ii)-q, B-(iii)-p, C-(iv)-s, D-(i)-r
(4) A-(iii)-s, B-(i)-r, C-(ii)-p, D-(iv)-q
57) How many of the following will be present in a prokaryotic cell ?
Basal body, Cell Membrane, Chromatophore, Lysosome, Ribosome, Nucleolemma, Cytoplasm.

(1) Three
(2) Five
(3) Four
(4) Seven

58)

Arrange the events of cellcyle in the correct sequences

(i) RNA synthesis, DNA, polymerase synthesis
(ii) Replication of DNA histone protein synthesis
(iii) Tubulin protein synthesis, ATP synthesis

(iv) Karyokinesis, cytokinesis

(1) (i) → (ii) → (iii) → (iv)
(2) (ii) → (i) → (iii) → (iv)
(3) (iv) → (iii) → (ii) → (i)
(4) (iii) → (iv) → (ii) → (i)

59) In cells of higher plants, during the S-phase -

(1) DNA replication occurs in nucleus and centrioles duplicate in the cytoplasm
(2) DNA replication occurs in nucleus
(3) Centrioles duplicates in the cytoplasm
(4) Centrioles duplicates in the nucleus and DNA replication occurs in the cytoplasm.

60)

Read the following four statements (a-d)

(a) Late prophase → Golgi bodies, ER disappear
(b) Metaphase → Chromosomes arrange on equator
(c) Anaphase → Centromere split

(d) Telophase → Centriole divide

How many are correctly matched ?
(1) Three
(2) Two
(3) One
(4) Four

61) Consider the following statements (A)-(D) each with one or two blank space.
(A) __i __is marked by the initiation of condensation of chromosomal material
(B) In Oocytes of some vertebrates, ___ii___ can last for months or years
(C) During anaphase the ___iii___ divide and __iv___ start moving toward the two opposite poles.
(D) In animal cells, during s-phase __v__ replication begins in the nucleus and the ___vi___ duplicates
in the cytoplasm.
Which of the following options, given the correct fills up for the respective blank number from (i) to
(vi) in the statement :-

(1) (i) Prophase (ii) centromere (vi) DNA

(2) (i) Telophase (v) Centriole (vi) DNA
(3) (ii) Diplotene (iv) daughter chromosomes (vi) Centriole
(4) (i) Prophase (iv) Chromosome (v) daughter centromere

62) Identify the following stages (A) and (B) of mitosis and select the right option :-

Stage Description Key event

Chromosomes Chromosomes
(1) (B) Metaphase highly move to
condensed equator

Chromatin
(A) Early Centrioles
(2) condensation
prophase duplicates
start

Daughter
Centromere chromatids
(3) (A) Telophase
divides move to
opposite poles

Golgi complex,
Each
ER, nucleolus,
(B) Late Chromosome is
(4) Nuclear
prophase made up of two
envelope
chromatids
disappear
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

63) Number of chromatids in a chromosome during metaphase are :-

(1) Two chromatids in each chromosome each in mitosis and meiosis

Two chromatids in each chromosome in mitosis and one chromatid in each chromosome in
(2)
meiosis
Two chromatids in each chromosome in mitosis and four chromatids in each chromosome in
(3)
meiosis
 One chromatid in each chromosome in mitosis and two chromatids in each chromosome in
(4)
meiosis

64) During quiescent phase of cell cycle

(1) Cell remain metabolically active

(2) Cell does not divide
(3) DNA replication can occur
(4) Both (1) and (2)

65) Assertion :- Crossing over is the exchange of genetic material between two homologous
chromosome.
Reason :- Crossing over is an enzyme mediated process and enzyme involved is recombinase.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

66) Assertion : Metaphase is the stage at which morphology of chromosomes is most easily studied.
Reason : At metaphase, condensation of chromosomes is completed.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

67) Assertion: Homologous chromosome separate, while sister chromatids remain associated at
their centromeres during Anaphase I.
Reason: Monovalent chromosomes align on the equitorial plate during metaphase I.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

68) Which one of the following statement is incorrect?

(1) M-phase is the most drammatic period of the cell cycle

(2) Cell division is a progressive process
(3) Prophase follows the cytokinesis
(4) Prophase is marked by the initiation of condensation of chromosomal material

69) Read the following statements and select incorrect statement

Meiosis involves two sequential cycles of nuclear and cell division called meiosis I and meiosis II
(1)
but only a single cycle of DNA replication
(2) Four haploid cells are formed at the end of meiosis II
Meiosis involves pairing of Homologous chromosomes and recombination between sister
(3)
chromatids of homologous cromosomes
Meiosis I initiated after the parental chromosome have replicated to produce identical sister
(4)
chromatids at S-phase

70) Read the following statements and find out how many statements are not correct :
(A) In telophase-I the nuclear membrane and nucleolus reappear, cytokinesis follows and this is
called as dyad of cells.
(B) Meiosis increases the genetic variability in the population of organisms from one generation to
the next.
(C) In zygotene stage chromosomes start pairing together and this process of association is called
crossing over.
(D) Diakinesis represents transition to metaphase.

(1) Three
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Four

71) Select incorrect statements :-

(i) Interphase represents the phase between two successive M phase.
(ii) The interphase though called the resting phase is the time during which the cell is preparing for
division.
(iii) Yeast cell complete cell cycle in 90 hr.

(1) Only (i)

(2) Only (ii)
(3) Only (iii)
(4) (i) & (ii)

72) Which of the following option is correct for amount of DNA in different stages of meiosis if
amount of DNA in G1 phase is 64 pg ?

Anaphase-I = 128 pg, Metaphase-I = 128 pg,

(1)
Metaphase-II = 64 pg.
G2 = 128 pg, Diakinesis = 256 pg,
(2)
Metaphase-I = 128 pg
Pachytene = 256 pg, Metaphase-I = 256 pg,
(3)
Diplotene = 256 pg
S phase =128 pg, Diakinesis = 256 pg,
(4)
Metaphase-I = 128 pg

73) In root tip cell there are 14 chromosomes and the DNA content is 2C, what will be the number of
chromosome and amount of DNA at G1, after S and in anaphase respectively?

No. of chromosomes Amount of DNA

(1) 14, 14, 14 2C, 4C, 4C
(2) 14, 28, 28 2C, 2C, 4C
(3) 14, 14, 28 2C, 4C, 4C
(4) 28, 14, 14 4C, 2C, 2C
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

74) Given below are two statements :

Statement-I : Cells in G0 stage remain metabolically active but no longer proliferate unless called
on to do, so depending on the requirement of the organism.
Statement-II : In animal cells, during S-phase, DNA replication begins in the cytoplasm and the
centriole duplicates in the nucleus.
In the light of the above statements choose the correct answer from options given below :

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

75) Cellulose do not give iodine test because :-

(1) It contain complex helices and hence degrade iodine molecules.

(2) It does not contain complex helices and hence degrade iodine molecules.
(3) It contain complex helices and hence cannot hold iodine molecules.
(4) It does not contain complex helices and hence cannot hold iodine molecules.

76) Assertion : Water is 70-90% of the total cellular mass.

Reason : Water is the most abundant chemical in living organism.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

77) Read the following statement (A-D) :-

(a) Each protein is a polymer of amino acids
(b) A protein is a hetero polymer and not a homo polymer
(c) Dietary proteins are the source of essential amino acid
(d) Collagen is the most abundant protein in whole of the biosphere
How many of the above statement are right :-

(1) Three
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Four

78) Which of the following is a correct match according to secondary metabolites ?

 A-Alkaloid B-Toxins C-Drug
(1) Vinblastin Abrin Morphine
(2) Codeine Ricin Curcumin
(3) Ricin Morphine Abrin
(4) Rubber Cellulose Morphine
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

79) Assertion : The amino acid glycine comes under the category of non-essential amino acids.
Reason : This is due to the fact that glycine can not be synthesised in the body.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

80) Which of the following is a primary metabolite ?

(1) Anthocyanin
(2) Carotenoids
(3) Sucrose
(4) Morphine

81) Among the following neutral amino acids are?

(1) Glycine & Alanine

(2) Histidine & Arginine
(3) Glycine & Aspartic acid
(4) Glutamic acid & Tyrosine

82) Which of the following statement is correct ?

(1) Exoskeleton of arthropods have a complex heteropolysaccharide.

(2) Inulin is a polymer of fructofuranose
(3) Trypsin is a homopolymer.
(4) Lecithin is a type of glycolipid found in cell membrane

83) Read the following statement having two blanks (A) and B) :-
In oligosaccharides, monosaccharides are linked together by ....A.... . One molecule of ....B....
eliminates during bond formation. Here (A) and (B) are :-

(1) A - glycosidic bond, B - H2S

(2) A - Posphoester bond, B - H2O
(3) A - glycosidic bond, B - H2O
(4) A - peptide bond, B - H2S

84) Which of the following statement is/are true about enzymatic reaction ?
(A) Enzyme may change the rate of reaction
(B) Enzyme interfere with equilibrium state of reaction
(C) They lower down the activation energy of reaction
(D) Presence of enzyme is a confirmation of being a living system

(1) A & B
(2) B & C
(3) only C
(4) A,C & D

85) Statement-I : Enzymes generally function in a narrow range of temperature.

Statement-II : Low temperature preserves the enzyme in a temporarily inactive state.

(1) Statement I and II both are correct

(2) Statement I and II both are incorrect
(3) Only Statement I is correct
(4) Only Statement II is correct

86) Select the option which is not correct with respect to enzyme action :-

(1) Substrate binds with enzyme at its active site.

Addition of lot of succinate does not reverse the inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by
(2)
malonate.
A non-competitive inhibitor binds the enzyme at a site distinct from that which binds the
(3)
substrate.
(4) Malonate is a competitive inhibitor of succinic dehydrogenase.

87)

Consider the following statements :-

(A) A number of enzymes require metal ions for their activity which forms coordination bonds with
the side chains at the active sites as well as one or more coordination bonds with the substrate.
(B) The protein portion of the coenzyme is called the apoenzyme.
Select the correct option :

(1) Both (A) and (B) are true

(2) (A) is true and (B) is false
(3) Both (A) and (B) are false
(4) (A) is false and (B) is true

88) Which type of enzyme inhibition is used to control of bacterial pathogen ?

(1) Feed back inhibition

(2) Allosteric inhibition
(3) Competitive inhibition
(4) Non competitive inhibition

89) The concentration of substrate at which enzymatic activity is half of maximum, is denoted by.

(1) Vmax
(2) Vmax/2
(3) Km value
(4) ½ km

90) Match List I with List II :-

List I List II
(Class of enzymes) (Type of reaction)

Transfer of group other

A. Dehydrogenases I
than hydrogen

Removal of groups
B. Lyases II
without hydrolysis

C. Transferases III Oxidation and reduction

D. Ligases IV Linking of compounds

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) A-II,B-III,C-IV,D-I
(2) A-III,B-I,C-IV,D-II
(3) A-II,B-IV,C-I,D-III
(4) A-III,B-II,C-I,D-IV
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 3 2 4 4 4 3 4 3 3 2 1 3 2 3 2 1 3 3 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 1 4 3 1 1 2 4 3 4 3 3 4 3 4 2 2 1 1 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 3 1 1 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 4 1 3 3 3 3 3 4 2 2 2 4 1 2 3 1 1 3 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 1 3 4 3 4 1 2 3 2 1 4 2 3 3 1 1 3 3 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 2 1 4 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 2 1 1 3 3 2 2 1 2 3 4 3 2 4 2 4 2 4 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 2 3 4 3 1 4 3 4 4 4 3 4 1 3 2 1 2 3 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 4 2 1 2 2 4 3 3 1 2 2 3 2 4 2 2 1 2 1
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 4 1 4 2 1 3 3 3 2 3 1 3 3 4 1 1 2 1 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 1 2 3 4 1 2 2 3 3 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Question Explanation
A body of mass m moves along the x-axis from rest under a constant power P. We need to
determine the relationship between velocity v and time f

Concept

Solution:
• Power in terms of velocity and mass
P = mav (∵ P = F.V and F =Ma)
• Acceleration is the time derivative of velocity:

• Substituting is into the power equation.

• Rearranging

• Integrating both sides

• Performing integration:

• Solving for v

• This shows that

Correct Answer: Option (1)
Question Level: Tough

2)

Wfriction + Wgravity = ΔKE

–mgℓ + mgh – mgh' = 0
–µℓ + h = h'
–4 + 5 = h'
h' = 1 m

3)
Uf = mg(–l) = –mgl
decrease in P.E. = increase in K.E.
4)

(mgsinθ + μmgcosθ) (AB)

mg(h + μℓ)

5) After 10 sec,

F = ma

k = 10–4

6)

and
∴ vx = axt = 1.4 × 2 = 2.8 ms–1
and vy = ayt = 4.8 × 2 = 9.6 ms–1

7) 1. Problem Explanation :
Determine what the presence of a negative charge on a body indicates about the transfer of
electrons or protons.

2. Concept :
An object becomes negatively charged when it gains electrons, as electrons carry a negative
charge. Protons remain fixed in the nucleus and do not move during charging processes.
3. Calculation:
A negative charge results from gaining extra electrons because :
Electrons are mobile and negatively charged.
Protons cannot move between objects under normal conditions.

Final Answer :
acquired some electrons from outside

8)

&

9)

When body gets positive charge than its loose electron and body gets negative charge its
receive electron.

10)

x >> R, E =

11)

12)

At equilibrium – tanθ =

Here, FE same for both charges ⇒ tanθ ∝

if m1 = m2 ⇒ θ1 = θ2

13) Question explain

We're given diagrams showing electrostatic force directions between three charged particles.
We must determine which arrangements are possible under Coulomb's law and Newton's third
law.
Concept based
For any system of charges, the forces must obey Newton's third law (equal and opposite), and
the net force vectors must align with the nature of attraction or repulsion between charges.
Formula used

Coulomb's law:
Newton's third law:
Calculation
Diagram I violates symmetry and balance, so it's incorrect.
Diagram II shows mutual repulsion-possible if all charges are like.
Diagram III satisfies force balance-possible.
Diagram IV violates symmetry so it is incorrect
Answer option (3)
II, III

14)

qE = mg

15)

| q | ∝ No. of ELF

16) By theory

17)

Property of metal in electrostatic conduction

18) Asking about: We are given four statements about electric field lines and charge
distribution on metal surfaces and asked to identify which ones are correct.
Concept: Electric field lines
Formula: No direct formula, but principles of electrostatics and boundary conditions apply;
metal surface
σ (surface charge density) varies with geometry.
Explanation:
(a) True – field lines can't penetrate a conductor.
(b) True – they are always perpendicular at electrostatic equilibrium
(c) False – not always uniform except under special symmetry
(d) True – even spherical surface can have non-uniform charge if external fields exist.
Correct option (3)

19)

F ∝ q1q2
20) When q1 and q2 are like third charge q0 will be in equilibrium in between q1 and q2.

21)

F1 + F2 = 0

22)
F1cosθ1 = F2cosθ2

23)

Enet = 0
24) Experimental analysis

25) X242 → Y121 + D121 + Q

Q = BEf – BEi
= 8.1 (121 + 121) – 7.6 × 242
= 242 {8.1 – 7.6}
= 242 × 0.5
= 121.0 MeV

26)

λ2 =

27)
m1V1 = m2V2

Now ratio of nuclear radii

x=2

28) α β– 2β+
z = 92 – 2 × 2 + 1 – 2
z = 87

29) P = nhν

n = 5 × 1015

30)
= tanθ1 – tanθ2
= constant

31)

32)

Adding all

33)

arel(y) = aAy – aBy

= g(sin 60)2 – g(sin 30)2

=
= 4.9 m/s2
vertically downwards

34)

Impulse =
Area is maximum in III and IV

35)

36)
T sin θ = 2 × 5
T cos θ = 20
cot θ = 2

37) Let a = acceleration

F = 15 a

T = 2a
T = 3g
2a = 3g
2a = 3g

a= = 15 m/s2
F = 225 N

38)

(1) [Net force acting on B] → [(P) 150N]

FB = mB × a = 30 × 5 = 150 N
(2) [Normal reaction between A and B] → [(Q) 300 N]
NAB – 20 × 10 = 20 × 5 (Calculation using block A)
⇒ NAB = 100 + 200 = 300 N
(3) [Normal reaction between B and C] → [(S) 750 N]
(Calculation using both B and A)
NBC – (20 + 30) × 10 = (20 + 30) × 5
⇒ NBC = (20 + 30) × 15 = 750 N
(4) [Normal reaction between C and elevator] → [(T) 1500 N]
(Calculation using A, B & C all three)
NC (up) – (20 + 30 + 50) × 10 = (20 + 30 + 50) × 5
⇒ NC (up) = 100 × 15 = 1500 N
Aliter :
NC (up) – NBC (down) = mc × a (up)
⇒ NC (up) – 750 N = (50 × 5) N
⇒ NC (up) – (750 + 750) N = 1500 N

39)

⇒ Acceleration relative to wedge will be along the inclined plane.

⇒ Normal reaction will be perpendicular to inclined plane.

40) (P) (fS)max = µSN = 0.6 (2g) = 12 N

fk = µKN = 0.5 (2g) = 10 N
block won't move, a = 0, f = 10 N so 2,4
(Q) 32 > (fs)max so block will slip.
[(fs)max = 0.6 (4g) = 24 N
& fk = 0.5 (4g) = 20 N] OR (P) Fapp < FL ⇒ a = 0
 (Q) a =
(R) Fapp < fL ⇒ a = 0

(S)

41)

Explain question : evaluate two statements—an Assertion and a Reason—related to the

forces acting on a body in contact with a surface.
Concept : This question is based on contact force
Explanation :

Assertion (A) : Since the normal reaction force (N) is always non-zero for a body in contact with a
surface, Therefore, contact force​ will always be greater than friction force
Reason (R): This is the definition of contact force. It is the vector sum (or resultant) of the normal
reaction and friction force.
Final answer :- (1)

42) As forces at two ends of string are different, so tension on it decreases from 2F to F in
moving from A to B.

In case of massless string,

Hence, both statements are correct.

43)
time when vy = 0
20 – 4t = 0
t=5
T = 2 × t = 10 sec

tan 53 =

t = 3 sec
R = vx × T
= 6 × 10 = 60 m

44)

Total time = 2 + 6 = 8 s

ux = = 30 m/s
R = uxT = 8(30) = 240 m
 45)

= = 2 m/s2
For 3 kg : 60 – 30 sin 30° – N1 = 3a
For 2 kg : N1 – 20 sin 30° – N2 = 2a
For 1 kg : N1 – 10 sin 30° – F2 = 1a

CHEMISTRY

46)

All having same R1 S configuration

47) Explaining the Question :-

Identify the compound not showing geometrical isomerism
Concept:-If two some groups are present at any atom a restricted rotatory system, then
geometric isomerism does not exist.
Solution :-

Here G.I. is not possible across double bonded carbons (restricted rotatory system)
Final Answer :- (4)

48)

Put option in x,y,z

49)

(3) Not matemer (Identical)

50)

H+ attacks on more basic N atom.

51)

Theory Based question

52) Complete octate increase stability.

53)
Fact : R – SO3H > R – COOH > Ph – OH

54)

depends on stability of C+, N⊕, O⊕

55)

H–COOH > > CH3–COOH > H2CO3

56) →
(N.A.) (A.A.)

57)
are tautomers.

58)

On the basis of

59)

H.O.C. ∝ (When no. of carbon same.)

60) Question Explanation :

This question is asking about Which of the following not give CO2 gas with NaHCO3 ?

Concept :
This question is based on salt displacement reaction - Strong acid anhydr. displace whether
acid salt. NaHCO3 is react with these acid which are more acidic than H2CO3.

Solution :

(1) * more acidic than H2CO3. * give CO2 gas with NaHCO3.

(2) * less acidic than H2CO3. * not gives CO2 gas with NaHCO3.
(3) * More acidic than H2CO3. * give CO2 gas with NaHCO3

(4) * More acidic than H2CO3. * give CO2 gas with NaHCO3.

Final Answer :
Option (2)

61)

on the basis if back bonding

62)

63)

Explaining the Question :- Arrange in decreasing order of reactivity towards

bromination.

Concept:- Reactivity towards bromination (ESR) ∝

Solution :- Reactivity order is :-

Activating groups (+M, +H) increase the rate of bromination (ESR) and deactivating groups
(–M, –H) decrease the rate of bromination (ESR)

Final Answer :- Option (1)

64)

On the basis of data base

65)

66)

67) Asking about : Major product of given reaction.

Concept :
{Hint :- –OCH3 shows (+M, –I) effect while –CH3 show (+H, +I) effect. +M of –OCH3 dominates
Here.}
(CH3)2 C = CH2 + H+ ——→ (CH3)3 – C⊕
Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

68) Question Explanation :

This question is asking about reagent in the given reaction.

Concept :
This question is based on
(i) Friedal-Craft Acylation
(ii) Clemmensen reduction reaction.
(iii) Electrophilic subsititution reaction.

Solution :
Final Answer :
Option (3)

69)

+M effect

70)

71) Question Explanation :

This question is asking about position at which substitution takes place in the given compound.

Concept :
This question is based on
(1) Electrophile attack at electron rich site.
(2) +M group increase electron density at ortho-para position.

Solution :
Final Answer :
Option (4)

72)

–OCH3 group has +M effect and o,p-directing group.

73)

74)

Eq (Mn3O4) = Eq. [Link](C2O4)3

mol × 2 = 1 × 9
mol = 4.5

75) Question Explanation: The question asks to determine the EMF (Electromotive Force)
for a given concentration cell involving hydrogen gas at two different pressures, P1 and P2.

Concept : Nernst equation :

Solution :
• Anode (Oxidation): H2(g, P1) → 2H+(aq) + 2e–
• Cathode (Reduction): 2H+(aq) + 2e– → H2(g, P2)
The overall cell reaction is: H2(g, P1) → H2(g, P2)
For this reaction :
•n=2
• = 0.

•Q=
Substituting these values into the Nernst equation:
 Final answer : Option 2

76)

More negative or lower is the reduction potential, more is the reducing power.

77)

Silver can not reduce Cu+2 ion.

78)

decrease

79) E = 0.323 – log

80)

2H+ + 2e– H2(g)

E= –

E=0+ log [H+]2

E ⇒ – 0.059 pH
= 7 E1 = – 0.059 × 7 = – 0.413 V
= 0 E2 = 0

Reduction potential decrease by 0.413 V i.e. O.P es

81) 2H2O + MnO2 → MnO4– + 4H+ + 3e– …(III)

Mn2+ + 4H2O → MnO4– + 8H+ + 5e …(II)
+ – 2+
MnO2 + 4H + 2e → Mn + 2H2O …(I)
Eq. (III) = I + II
(–3F)ε° = (–2F) × 1.23 + (–5F) × (–1.51)

ε° =

82)

Statement (A) and Statement (C) are incorrect

83) Explanation:
For Daniel cell, with the help of assertion and reason correct option
concept
Assertion→ In daniel cell, electrons flow from zn rod to Cu rod → true
Reason → zn rod acts as cathode and Cu rod acts as anode in Daniel cell → Incorrect
∵ Zn → acts as Anode
Cu → acts as cathode

Final answer = Assertion is true but the reason is false

Correct option = 3

84)

velocity of both K+ and are nearly the same

85) Conductivity is conductance of all the ions present in 1 ml solution so on dilution, no. of
ions per ml decreases so conductivity also decreases.

86)

87)

Mn+2 + 2e– → Mn E° = –1.18 V

2H2O + 2e– → H2 + 2OH– E° = –0.83 V
Since the reduction potential of H2O is greater than Mn+2 ions. So from aqueous solution of
Mn+2 ions. So from aqueous solution of Mn salt, Mn can’t be extracted.
Higher the reduction potential, greater is the ease of reduction.

88)

Ecell =

1.50 ⇒

1.50 =

1.50 =
1.50 =
1.50 =
1.50 =
1.50 =
 89) Tl + Cu+2 → Tl+ + Cu
s 10–2M 10–4M s

E = E° +

90) Statement based

BIOLOGY

91)

NCERT Pg. # 197

92) NCERT Supplement

93)

NCERT Pg No. # 286,288,287,284

94)

NCERT XI Pg. # 195

95) NCERT XI Pg # 279, 280

96)

NCERT Pg. # 196

97)

NCERT Pg. # 200

98)

NCERT Pg. # 200

99)

NCERT Pg. # 200

100)
NCERT Pg. # 194

101)

NCERT Pg. # 201

102)

NCERT Pg. # 201

103)

NCERT Pg. # 197

104)

NCERT Pg. # 194

105) NCERT Pg # 279

106)

Carotid Artery supply to Brain

107)

NCERT Pg. # 200

108)

NCERT Pg. # 200

109)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 202

110)

NCERT Pg. # 200

111)

NCERT Pg. # 200

112) Explain Question : Which of the following is correct representation of hepatic portal
system
Concept : This question is based on portal system
Explanation : The correct pathway is Intestine → Hepatic portal vein → Liver.
Final answer : 2. Intestine → Hepatic portal vein → Liver

113)

Saline water increase B.P.

114)

NCERT Pg. # 197

115)

At high altitude RBC increases

116)

NCERT Pg. # 275

117) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 272

118)

NCERT Pg. # 189

119)

NCERT Pg. # 187

120)

NCERT Pg. # 187

121) NCERT Pg. # 274

122) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 186, Fig. 14.2

123)

NCERT XI # 274
 124)

NCERT Pg. # 184

125)

NCERT Pg. # 189

126)

NCERT - XI, Page No. 268, Para - 17.1

127)

A. Question: Identify the correct statements regarding carbon dioxide transport in the blood.
B. Given Data: Four statements (A, B, C, and D) about CO2 transport are provided.
C. Concept: This question tests knowledge of the physiological mechanisms of carbon dioxide
transport in the blood.
D. Explanation:

A- A high concentration of carbonic anhydrase is present in RBC: This is correct. Red

blood cells (RBCs) contain a high concentration of the enzyme carbonic anhydrase, which is
crucial for the rapid conversion of CO2 and water into bicarbonate ions (HCO3–) and protons
(H+). This facilitates the transport of CO2.
​ B- Minute quantities of carbonic anhydrase is present in plasma: This is also correct.
While the majority of carbonic anhydrase is in RBCs, small amounts are also present in
plasma, contributing to CO2 conversion there as well, though to a lesser extent.
C- Every 100 ml blood delivers approximately 4 ml of CO 2 to the tissues: This is
incorrect. 100 ml of deoxygenated blood delivers approximately 4 ml of CO2 to the lungs (not
tissues). The tissues produce CO2, which is then picked up by the blood.
D- 20-25% CO2 is carried by haemoglobin as carbaminohaemoglobin: This is correct.
About 20-25% of CO2 binds to hemoglobin, forming carbaminohaemoglobin. This is one of the
ways CO2 is transported in the blood.
E. Final Answer: The correct answer is 1: A, B and D.

128)

A. Question: What will be the PO2 and PCO2 in the atmospheric air compared to those in the
alveolar air?
B. Given Data: Comparison of PO2 and PCO2 in atmospheric and alveolar air.
C. Concept: Partial pressures of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the respiratory system.
D. Explanation:

A. PO2 (Partial pressure of oxygen): Atmospheric air has a higher PO 2 than alveolar air. This
difference is crucial for oxygen to diffuse from the alveoli into the blood. The PO2 in the alveoli
is lower because the inspired air is mixed with air already present in the lungs (which has a
lower PO2), and because oxygen is constantly diffusing from the alveoli into the blood.
B. PCO2 (Partial pressure of carbon dioxide): Alveolar air has a higher PCO2 than atmospheric air.
This difference is essential for carbon dioxide to diffuse from the blood into the alveoli for
exhalation. CO2 is constantly being produced by the body's cells and transported to the lungs
for elimination.

E. Final Answer: 2. PO2 higher, PCO2 lesser

129)

NCERT Pg. # 196

130) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 273

131) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 274

132) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 275, Para-4

133)

NCERT Pg. # 184

134)

NCERT Pg. # 189

135)

NCERT Pg. # 186

136)

NCERT-XIth, Pg. # 93

137) NCERT-XIth, Pg. # 89, 90, 91

138)

NCERT-XIth, Pg. # 96, 97

139) NCERT-XIth, Pg. # 93

140)

NCERT-XIth, Pg. # 89, 90, 91

141)

NCERT-XIth, Pg. # 93

142) NCERT-XIth, Pg. # 94

143)

NCERT-XIth, Pg. # 95, 96

144)

NCERT-XIth, Pg. # 95, 98, 101

145) NCERT-XIth, Pg. # 95, 96

146)

NCERT-XIth, Pg. # 102

147)

NCERT-XIth, Pg. # 89

148)

NCERT-XIth, Pg. # 126

149)

NCERT-XIth, Pg. # 121

150)

NCERT-XIth, Pg. # 122, 123

151)

NCERT-XIth, Pg. # 121, 122, 123

152) NCERT-XIth, Pg. # 123, 124

153)
NCERT-XIth, Pg. # 123

154) NCERT-XIth, Pg. # 121

155) NCERT-XIth, Pg. # 126

156) NCERT XI Pg. # 123

157) NCERT-XIth, Pg. # 126, 127

158)

NCERT-XIth, Pg. # 122

159) NCERT-XIth, Pg. # 126, 127, 128

160) NCERT-XIth, Pg. # 126, 128

161)

NCERT-XIth, Pg. # 121, 127

162) NCERT-XIth, Pg. # 126, 128

163)

NCERT-XIth, Pg. # 121, 123

164) NCERT-XIth, Pg. # 121, 122

165) NCERT-XIth, Pg. # 110

166) NCERT-XIth, Pg. # 109

167) NCERT-XIth, Pg. # 109, 110

168) NCERT-XIth, Pg. # 108

169) NCERT-XIth, Pg. # 109

170) NCERT-XIth, Pg. # 108

171) NCERT-XIth, Pg. # 108

172) NCERT-XIth, Pg. # 110

173) NCERT-XIth, Pg. # 110

174) NCERT-XIth, Pg. # 112, 113

175) NCERT-XIth, Pg. # 116

176)

NCERT-XIth, Pg. # 117

177) NCERT-XIth, Pg. # 117, 118

178) NCERT-XIth, Pg. # 117

179)

NCERT-XIth, Pg. # 116

180) NCERT-XIth, Pg. # 117, 118