23-11-2025

1015CMD303055250037 MD

PHYSICS

1) A unifrom thin rod of length L and mass m is bent at the middle point O as shown in figure.
Consider an axis passing through its middle point O and perpendicular to the plane of the bent rod.

Then moment of inertia about this axis is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) dependent on θ

2) A circular platform is free to rotate in a horizontal plane about a vertical axis passing through its
centre. A tortoise is sitting at the edge of the platform. Now the platform is given an angular velocity
ω0. When the tortoise move along a diametre of the platform with a constant velocity (with respect to
the platform) the angular velocity of the platform ω(t) will vary with time t as :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) Out of the given bodies (of same mass) for which the moment of inertia will be maximum about
the axis passing through its centre of mass and perpendicular to its plane:-

(1) Disc of radius 'a'

(2) Ring of radius 'a'
(3) Square lamina of side '2a'
(4) Four rods of length '2a' making a square

4) A disc of mass m and radius R has a concentric hole of radius r. It moment of inertia about an axis
through its center and perpendicular to its plane is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) Four holes of radius R are cut from a thin square plate of side 4R and mass M. The moment of

inertia of the remaining portion about z-axis is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) If the radius of gyration of a solid sphere of mass 20 kg about an axis is 0.40 m, then the moment
of inertia of the sphere about that axis is :-

(1) 1.6 kgm2

(2) 3.2 kgm2
(3) 6.41 kgm2
(4) 9.51 kgm2

7) If the block shown in the figure is in equilibrium, under the action of an external force. Then
choose the correct free body diagram of the block :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) A particle of mass m = 5 units is moving with a uniform speed v = units in the x–y plane
along the line y = x + 4. The magnitude of the angular momentum about orgin is :-

(1) zero
(2) 60 unit
(3) 7.5 unit
(4) 40 unit

9) A loop rolls down on an inclined plane. The fraction of its total kinetic energy that is associated
with the rotational motion is :-

(1) 1 : 2
(2) 1 : 3
(3) 1 : 4
(4) 2 : 3

10) Two uniform rods of equal length but different masses are rigidly joined to form an L-shaped
body, which is then pivoted about O as shown in the figure. If in equilibrium the body is in the shown

configuration, ratio M/m will be:

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3)
(4)

11) Four forces of equal magnitude are acting on a rod (as shown in figure) at distances of 20 cm, 40
cm, 60 cm and 80 cm respectively from one end of the rod. Under the influence of these forces the

rod :-

(1) is at rest
(2) experiences a torque
(3) experiences a linear motion
(4) experiences a torque and also a linear motion

12) When a particle moves in a circle with uniform speed :-

(1) its velocity and acceleration are both constant

(2) its velocity is constant but the acceleration changes
(3) its acceleration is constant but the velocity changes
(4) its velocity and acceleration both change

13) A mass is placed on a frictionless horizontal surface. It is attached to a string and rotates about a
fixed centre at an angular velocity ω0. If the length of the string and angular velocity are doubled,
the tension in the string which was initially T0, is now :-

(1) T0
(2) T0/2
(3) 4T0
(4) 8T0

14) Two particles A and B are projected from ground with speed 2 m/s and m/s at an angle 30°
and 60° from horizontal respectively. If seperation between A and B on ground is 10 m. Find relative
angular velocity of B w.r.t A :
(1) 0.1 rad/s
(2) 0.2 rad/s
(3) 0.05 rad/s
(4) 1 rad/s

15) Car moves at a constant speed on a road as shown in figure. The normal force by the road on
the car is NA and NB when it is at the points A and B respectively, then:-

(1) NA = NB
(2) NA > NB
(3) NA < NB
(4) Insufficient information to decide the relation of NA & NB

16)

An insect trapped in a circular groove of radius 2 cm moves along the groove steadily and completes
7 revolutions in 100 s. What is the linear speed of the motion :–

(1) 2.3 cm/s

(2) 5.3 cm/s
(3) 0.44 cm/s
(4) none of these

17) If a particle is moving with uniform speed in a horizontal circle, then –

(1) no force is acting on particle

(2) velocity of particle is constant
(3) particle has no acceleration
(4) no work is done

18) What is the acceleration of block A when the system is released from rest ?

(1) g/2 downwards

(2) g/3 downwards
(3) g/3 upwards
(4) g/2 upwards.
19) A rocket of mass 6000 kg is set for vertical firing. If the exhaust speed be 1 km/s, how much gas
must be ejected to give the rocket an upward acceleration of 20 ms–2?(Take g = 10 ms–2)

(1) 45 kg/s
(2) 90 kg/s
(3) 120 kg/s
(4) 180 kg/s

20) A bullet is fired from a gun. The force on the bullet is given by F = 600 – 2 × 105t, where F is in
newton and t in second. The force on the bullet becomes zero as soon as it leaves the barrel. What is
the impulse imparted to the bullet ?

(1) 9 Ns
(2) Zero
(3) 0.9 Ns
(4) 1.8 Ns

21) Two blocks of masses M1 and M2 are connected with a string passing over a pulley as shown in
figure. The block M1 lies on a horizontal surface. The coefficient of friction between the block M1 and
the horizontal surface is µ. The system accelerates. What additional mass m should be placed on the

block M1 so that the system does not accelerate ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) (M2 – M1)µ

22) A body is moving under the action of two forces . Its velocity will
become uniform under a third force given by :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

23) A particle of mass 2kg moves in free space such that its position vector varies with time as
 where t is in seconds. Net force acting on the particle is :-

(1) zero
(2) parallel to x-axis
(3) parallel to y-axis
(4) time dependent

24) A block of mass M is pulled along a horizontal frictionless surface by a rope of mass m. If force F
is applied at one end of the rope, the force which the rope exerts on the block is :-

(1)

(2) F

(3)

(4) Zero

25) A lift of mass 100 kg starts moving from rests in downward direction figure shows the variation
of speed of the lift. T1, T2, T3 stands for the tension in the rope from zero to two seconds, two to six

seconds, six to seven seconds respectively then:-

(1) T1 : T2 : T3 :: 1 : 1 : 1
(2) T1 : T2 : T3 :: 4 : 5 : 7
(3) T1 : T2 : T3 :: 6 : 5 : 3
(4) T1 : T2 : T3 :: 6 : 5 : 6

26) In the figure shown all the surfaces are frictionless, and mass of the block 'm' is 1 kg. The block
and wedge are held initially at rest. Now wedge is given a horizontal acceleration of 5 m/s2 by
applying a force on the wedge, so that the block does not slip on the wedge. Then work done by the

normal force in ground frame on the block in 2 sec is:-

(1) 30J
(2) 50J
(3) 100J
(4) 150J
 0
27) A particle moves on a rough horizontal ground with some initial velocity say v . If of its kinetic
energy is lost due to friction in time t0 then coefficient of friction between the particle and the
ground is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) A force F acting on a body starts from rest depends on its displacement x as F ∝ xn. The power
delivered by F will be independent of x, if n is:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) A 60 cm diameter hand wheel is rotated by exerting a force of 30 N at the outer rim. If the wheel

is turned through revolution, then the work done is :-

(1) Zero
(2) 18 J
(3) 28.3 J
(4) 56.5 J

30) A small electric dipole is placed at origin with its dipole moment directed along positive x -axis.

The direction of electric field at point is-

(1) along z - axis

(2) along y - axis
(3) along negative y -axis
(4) along negative z-axis

31) Two electric dipoles of moment P and 64 P are placed in opposite direction on a line at a
distance of 25 cm. The electric field will be zero at point between the dipoles whose distance from
the dipole of moment P is:

(1) 5 cm
(2)
cm
(3) 10 cm

(4)
cm

32) If represents electric field at a point on the axial and equatorial line of a dipole. If
points are at a distance r from the centre of the dipole, for r >> a

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

33) Refer to the arrangement to changes in figure and a Gaussian surface of radius R with Q at the

centre. Then

(1)
total flux through the surface of the sphere is

(2)
field on the surface of the sphere is
(3) flux through the surface of sphere due to Q is zero
(4) field on the surface of sphere due to –2Q is same everywhere

34)

Three identical dipoles are arranged as shown below. What will be the net electric field at
(1)

(2)

(3) Zero

(4)

35) An uncharged conductor has two spherical cavities of radius r1 and r2 two point charges q1 and q2
are placed at centres of cavities. Potential at the surface of conductor is v0, then potential at point P

will be :-

(1) zero

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) A uniformly charged infinite wire is placed along 'y' axis having linear charge density 'λ1'. A
semicircle wire having linear charge density 'λ2' centred at (R, 0) is placed as shown. Find the ratio

of . If electric field at (R, 0) is zero.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) A beam of light of λ = 600 nm from a distant source falls on a single slit 1 mm wide and the
resulting diffraction pattern is observed on a screen 2 m away. The distance between first dark
fringes on either side of the central bright fringe is :-
(1) 1.2 cm
(2) 1.2 mm
(3) 2.4 cm
(4) 2.4 mm

38) The central fringe of interference pattern produced by light of wavelength 6000Å is found to
shift to the position of 4th bright fringe, after a glass plate of μ = 1.5 is introduced. The thickness of
the glass plate is :

(1) 4.8 μm
(2) 8.23 μm
(3) 14.98 μm
(4) 3.78 μm

39) The intensity of the central fringe obtained in the interference pattern due to two indentical slit
sources is I. When one of the slits is closed then the intensity at the same point is I0. Then the
correct relation between I and I0 is :

(1) I = I0
(2) I = 2I0
(3) I = 4I0
(4) I = I0/4

40) In YDSE, an interference pattern is obtained for λ = 6000 Å, coming from two coherent sources
S1 and S2. At certain point P on the screen third dark fringe is formed, then the path difference
S2P–S1P in micron is :-

(1) 0.75
(2) 1.5
(3) 3.0
(4) 4.5

41) In Y.D.S.E, when a glass plate (µ = 1.5) of thickness t in introduced in the path of one of the
interfering beams (wavelength λ). The intensity at the position where the central maxima occurred
previously remains unchanged. The minimum thickness of the glass plate is.

(1) 2 λ
(2) 2 λ/3
(3) λ/3
(4) λ

42) In a young's double slit experiment the intensity at a point where the path difference is λ/6 is I. If
I0 denotes the max intensity, I/I0 is equal to :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

43) Light of wavelength 4000Å is incident normally on a slit of width 16 × 10–5 cm. Find out the
angular position of second minimum from central maximum?

(1) 30o
(2) 45o
(3) 60o
(4) 90o

44) The slits in a Y.D.S.E. have equal widths and the source is placed symmetrically relative to the
slits. The intensity at the central fringe is I0/4. If one of the slits is closed, the intensity at this point
will be :

(1) I0
(2) I0/4
(3) I0/16
(4) I0/32

45) In a Young's double slit experiment with light of wavelength λ, the separation of slits is d and
distance of screen is D such that D > > d > > λ. If the Fringe width is β, the distance from point of
maximum intensity to the point, where intensity falls to half of maximum intensity on either side, is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

CHEMISTRY

1) Which complex species don't involve in d2sp3 hybridization?

3–
(1) [CoF6]
3+
(2) [Co(NH3)6]
3–
(3) [Fe(CN)6]
3+
(4) [Cr(NH3)6]

2) Among [Ni(CO)4], [Ni(CN)4]2–, [NiCl4]2– species, the hybridization states at the Ni atom are,
respectively.
(Atomic number of Ni = 28)

(1) sp3, dsp2, dsp2

(2) sp3, dsp2, sp3
(3) sp3, sp3, dsp2
(4) dsp2, dsp2, sp3

3) Correct relation between Δt and Δo

Here Δt = CFSE for tetrahedral complex
Δo = CFSE for octahedral complex

(1)
Δt = Δo

(2)
Δt = Δo

(3)
Δt = Δo

(4)
Δt = Δo

4) Which of the following is the IUPAC name of complex [Pt(NH3)2Cl(NO2)]

(1) Chloridodiamminenitrito-N platinum (II)

(2) Diamminechloridonitrito-N platinum (II)
(3) Diamminechloridonitrito-N-platinate (II)
(4) Nitrodiaminechlorido platinum (III)

5) Correct Statement is _______.

(A) Complex [Pt(NH3)2Cl2] shows geometrical isomerism
(B) Optical isomers are mirror images that can not be superimposed on one another. These are
called enantiomers.
(C) Chlorophyll is a complex compound of magnesium
(D) Ethylenediamine is a monodentate ligand.

(1) (A),(B),(C),(D) are correct options

(2) (A),(B),(C) are correct options
(3) (A),(B),(D) are correct options
(4) (A),(D) are correct options

6) Which have maximum paramagnetism :-

+3
(1) [Cr(H2O)6]
+2
(2) [Fe(H2O)6]
+2
(3) [Cu(H2O)6]
+2
(4) [Zn(H2O)6]
7) Assertion: [Sc(H2O)6]3+ is colourless.
Reason: d-d transition is not possible in [Sc(H2O)6]3+

(1) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct explanation for assertion.
(2) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a correct explanation for assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect.
(4) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.

8) Assertion :- EDTA ligand is hexadentate and chelating ligand.

Reason :- EDTA have 4 'N' and 2 'O' donor atoms.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(3) Assertion is False but the Reason is True.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is correct explanation of the Assertion.

9) Which one of the following is an outer orbital complex and exhibits paramagnetic behaviour ?

2+
(1) [Ni(NH3)6]
2+
(2) [Zn(NH3)6]
3+
(3) [Co(H2O)6]
3+
(4) [Co(NH3)6]

10) Incorrect statement regarding [Cr(NH3)6]Cl3 is:

(1) d2sp3 Hybridisation and octahedral geometry

(2) Paramagnetic complex
(3) Outer orbital complex
(4) Gives white ppt with AgNO3 solution

11) Which of the following arrangement of ligands for spectrochemical series is correct?

(1) I– < SCN– < Cl– < Br–

2– 2– - –
(2) S < C2O4 < OH < F
(3) NCS– < en < CN– < CO
4- –
(4) NH3 < en < edta < CN

12) Which of the following system has maximum number of unpaired electrons ?

(1) d5 (Octahedral, low spin)

(2) d8 (Tetrahedral)
(3) d6 (Octahedral, low spin)
(4) d3 (Octahedral)

13) The enthalpy change of the reaction,

 is ΔH1 and that of is ΔH2 then–

(1) |ΔH1| > |ΔH2|

(2) ΔH1 +ΔH2 =0
(3) |ΔH1| < |ΔH2|
(4) ΔH1 = ΔH2

14) For the hypothetical reaction

A2(g) + B2(g) ⇌ 2AB(g)
ΔrG° and ΔrS° are 20 kJ/mol and – 20 JK–1 mol–1 respectively at 200 K. If ΔrCp is 20 JK–1mol–1 then ΔrH°
at 400 K is :-

(1) 20 kJ/mol
(2) 7.98 kJ/mol
(3) 28 kJ/mol
(4) None of these

15) Based on the values of B.E. given ΔfH° of N2H4 (g) is :

Given :
N – N =159 kJ mol–1; H–H = 436 kJ mol–1
= 941 kJ mol–1; N–H = 398 kJ mol–1

(1) 711 kJ mol–1

(2) 62 kJ mol–1
(3) –98 kJ mol–1
(4) –711 kJ mol–1

16) For reaction which is correct

PCl5(g) ⇌ PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)

(1) ΔH < 0, ΔS < 0

(2) ΔH > 0, ΔS < 0
(3) ΔH = 0, ΔS < 0
(4) ΔH > 0, ΔS > 0

17) At 298 K the heat of combustion of H2(g) to H2O (g) is –249 kJ mol–1. The bond energies of H–H
and O=O respectively are 433 kJ mol–1 and 492 kJ mol–1. The bond energy of O–H would be

(1) 464 kJ mol–1

(2) 116 kJ mol–1
(3) 232 kJ mol–1
(4) 364 kJ mol–1

18) Which is correct for free expansion of an ideal gas under Adiabatic condition is :
(1) q > 0, ΔT > 0, W > 0
(2) q = 0, ΔT = 0, W = 0
(3) q = 0, ΔT < 0, W > 0
(4) q < 0, ΔT = 0, W = 0

19) The enthalpy of combustion of methane, graphite and dihydrogen at 298 K are –890.3 kJ mol–1,
–393.5 kJ mol–1 and –285.8 kJ mol–1 respectively. Enthalpy of formation of CH4(g) will be :

(1) +74.8 kJ mol–1

(2) –52.27 kJ mol–1
(3) –74.8 kJ mol–1
(4) +52.26 kJ mol–1

20) Given, C + O2 → CO2 ; ΔH = – 94.2 kcal ..(i)

H2 + O2 → H2O ; ΔH = – 68.3 kcal ..(ii)

CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O ; ΔH = – 210.8 kcal ..(iii)
The heat of formation of methane in kcal will be :-

(1) 45.9
(2) 47.8
(3) –20.0
(4) 47.3

21) Standard enthalpies of formation of O3, CO2, NH3 and HI are 142.2, –393.2, –46.2 and +25.9 kJ
mol–1 respectively. The order of their increasing stabilities will be :-

(1) O3, CO2, NH3, HI

(2) CO2, NH3, HI, O3
(3) O3, HI, NH3, CO2
(4) NH3, HI, CO2, O3

22) If of ICl(g), Cl(g) and I(g) is 17.57, 121.34 and 106.96 J/mol respectively. Then bond
dissociation energy of I–Cl bond is :

(1) 35.15 J/mol

(2) 106.69 J/mol
(3) 210.73 J/mol
(4) 420.9 J/mol

23) For which of the following standard enthalpy of formation is not zero :-

(1) Cgraphite
(2) H2(g)
(3) Br2(g)
(4) N2(g)

24) Enthalpy of CH4 + O2 → CH3OH is negative. If enthalpy of combustion of CH4 and CH3OH are x
and y respectively. Then which relation is correct?

(1) x > y
(2) x < y
(3) x = y
(4) x y

25)

If change in gibbs energy at 300 K is –300 KJ/mol and ΔSsystem = +500 J/K-mol.
Find ΔStotal

(1) –501 J/K-mol

(2) +500 J/K-mol
(3) –499 J/K-mol
(4) 1000 J/K-mol

26) Match the column-I with column-II.

Column-I Column-II

ΔH = +ve, Spontaneous at
(a) (p)
ΔS = +ve all temperature

ΔH = –ve, Non-spontaneous
(b) (q)
ΔS = +ve at all temperature

ΔH = +ve, Non-spontaneous
(c) (r)
ΔS = –ve at high temperature

ΔH = –ve, Spontaneous at
(d) (s)
ΔS = –ve high temperature
(1) a – q ; b – s ; c – r ; d – p
(2) a – p ; b – r ; c – s ; d – q
(3) a – s ; b – p ; c – q ; d – r
(4) a – r ; b – q ; c – p ; d – s

27) Assertion - (A) :– In Rutherford's gold foil experiment, very few α- particles are deflected back.
Reason - (R) :– Nucleus present inside the atom is heavy.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
28) The distance between 3rd and 2nd orbit of hydrogen atom :-

(1) 2.646 × 10–8 cm

(2) 2.116 × 10–8 cm
(3) 1.058 × 10–8 cm
(4) 0.529 × 10–8 cm

29) Which is correct for any H like species :

(1) (E2 – E1) > (E3 – E2) > (E4 – E3)

(2) (E2 – E1) < (E3 – E2) < (E4 – E3)
(3) (E2 – E1) = (E3 – E2) = (E4 – E3)

(4)
(E2 – E1) = (E3 – E2) = (E4 – E3)

30) are :-

(1) Position isomers

(2) Functional isomers
(3) Chain isomers
(4) Metamers

31) Possible secondary amines for the molecular formula C4H11N are :-

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 3
(4) 1

32) Which of the following relation is incorrect:

(1)

(2)
Identical

(3)

(4)
Chain isomer
33) are :-

(1) Chain isomers

(2) Position isomers
(3) Metamers
(4) Functional group isomers

34) Minimum number of carbon atoms required to show position isomerism in an organic compound
is :-

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1

35) How many total optical isomers are possible for.

(1) 8
(2) 16
(3) 15
(4) 12

36) Which of the following is L-glucose ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
37) Which of the following compound can show geometrical isomerim ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

38) Which conformation of HO—CH2—CH2—F is most stable in the following :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

39)
A and B are :-

(1) Homomer
(2) Enantiomer
(3) Diastereomer
(4) Not isomer
40) Which of the following show geometrical isomerism ?

(1) (i) and (ii)

(2) (ii) and (iv)
(3) (i), (iii), (iv)
(4) (ii) and (iii)

41) Which of the following compound is optically active ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) Correct match is

Column-I Column-II

(P) (a) Meso compound

(Q) (b) Optically active

(R) (c) Optically inactive but not Meso

(1) P → a ; Q → b ; R → c
(2) P → a ; Q → c ; R → b
(3) P → c ; Q → b ; R → a
(4) P → c ; Q → a ; R → b

43) Assertion : Pentane-2,3-diol can exist in meso form.

Reason : There may be plane of symmetry in one case.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
Both Assertion and Reason are true and but Reason is not a correct explanation of the
(2)
Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

44) Which of the following has E-configuration :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

45) Assertion : Staggered conformation of ethane is most stable while eclipsed conformation is
least stable.
Reason : Staggered form has the least torsional strain and the eclipsed form has the maximum
torsional strain

(1) Assertion is correct, reason is correct, reason is not a correct explanation for assertion
(2) Assertion is correct, reason is correct, reason is a correct explanation for assertion
(3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect.
(4) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.

BIOLOGY

1) A cell has 2n = 42 chromosomes then what will be number of chromosome during metaphase :-

(1) 21
(2) 42
(3) 94
(4) 44

2) First gap phase in cell cycle is :-

(1) interval between mitotic phase and initiation of DNA replication
(2) interval between end of DNA replication and DNA separation phase
(3) interval between karyokinesis and cytokinesis
(4) interval between DNA replication phase and second gap phase

3) Some events of mitotic cell division are given below in unordered manner -
(i) Condensation of chromatin is completed
(ii) Chromosome lose their identity as discrete elements
(iii) Sister chromatid separate
(iv) Initiation of the assembly of mitotic spindle between pair of centrioles
The correct order for steps of cell division is :-

(1) i → iv → iii → ii
(2) iv → i → iii → ii
(3) ii → i → iv → iii
(4) iv → iii → i → ii

4) How many centromeres are seen in human cell during metaphase

(1) 2
(2) 32
(3) 23
(4) 46

5) You have studied mitosis in onion root tip cells. It has 16 chromsome in each cell. Can you tell
how many chromosome will the cell have at G1 phase, metaphase, anaphase and after M-phase
respectively :-

(1) 16, 16, 32, 16

(2) 16, 32, 32, 16
(3) 16, 16, 32, 32
(4) 16, 16, 16, 16

6) If in a cell the amount of DNA is 2C in metaphase then what will be the amount of DNA in
anaphase (x), in G1 phase (y) and after M-phase (z) ?

(1) (x) – 4c, (y) – c, (z) – c

(2) (x) – 2c, (y) – 2c, (z) – 4c
(3) (x) – 4c, (y) – 4c, (z) – 2c
(4) (x) – 2c, (y) – c, (z) – c

7) Select the correct matches :-

(a) S-phase – DNA replication
(b) Zygotene – Synapsis
(c) Diplotene – Crossing over
(d) Meiosis – Both haploid and diploid cells
(e) G2 phase – Quiescent stage

(1) a & b
(2) c & d
(3) c & e
(4) a, c & e

8) Which of the following is an example of lateral meristem?

(1) Cork cambium

(2) Secondary phloem
(3) Secondary xylem
(4) Procambium

9) Which of the following is absent in most of monocot stem ?

(1) Sieve tube

(2) Companion cell
(3) Phloem parenchyma
(4) Tracheids

10) A flowering plant is made up of :

(1) One type of tissue

(2) Different kind of tissues
(3) Sclerenchymatous tissues
(4) Epithelial tissue

11) Complex tissue is found in :

(1) Gymnosperms
(2) Angiosperms
(3) Gametophytes
(4) Both (1) and (2)

12) Which structure comprises a single layer of barrel-shaped cells without any intercellular spaces
?

(1) Epidermis of root

(2) Endodermis of root
(3) Pericycle of root
(4) Medullary rays

13) The protoxylem lies towards the centre (pith) and the metaxylem lies towards the periphery of
the organ. This type of xylem is known as :
(1) Endarch
(2) Exarch
(3) Mesarch
(4) Polyarch

14)

Match the following and choose the correct option?

A Cuticle i Guard cells

B Bulliform cells ii Single layered

C Stomata iii Waxy layer

D Epidermis iv Empty colourless cells

(1) A - iii, B - iv, C - i, D - ii
(2) A - i, B - ii, C - iii, D - iv
(3) A - iii, B - ii, C - iv, D - i
(4) A - iii, B - ii, C - i, D - iv

15)

Match the column-I & II and select the correct option :-

Column-I Column-II
(i) Dicot Root (p) Starch sheath
(ii) Monocot Root (q) Sclerenchymatous hypodermis
(iii) Dicot Stem (r) Large & well-developed pith
(iv) Monocot stem (s) Tetrarch, Xylem bundles
(1) (i)–p; (ii)–q; (iii)–r; (iv)–s
(2) (i)–s; (ii)–r; (iii)–p; (iv)–q
(3) (i)–r; (ii)–s; (iii)–q; (iv)–p
(4) (i)–s; (ii)–p; (iii)–r; (iv)–q

16) Given below are two statement :-

Statement-I : Monocotyledonous roots donot undergo any secondary growth.
Statement-II : Casparian strips are present on radial and tangential walls of root endodermis.

(1) Statement-I and II both are correct

(2) Statement-I and II both are incorrect
(3) Only statement I is correct
(4) Only statement II is correct

17)

Match the column I with column II.

 Column I Column II

(A) Root hair (I) Epidermal tissue system

(B) Cortex (II) Vascular tissue system

(C) Xylem (III) Ground tissue system

(1) (A) – (I), (B) – (III), (C) – (II)
(2) (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (III)
(3) (A) – (III), (B) – (II), (C) – (I)
(4) (A) – (II), (B) – (III), (C) – (I)

18)

a-Epidermis
b-Hypodermis
(1)
c-Ground tissue
d-Vascular bundle
a-Epidermis
b-Hypodermis
(2)
c-Vascular bundle
d-Ground tissue
a-Hypodermis
b-Epidermis
(3)
c-Vascular bundle
d-Ground tissue
a-Epidermis
b-Ground tissue
(4)
c-Hypodermis
d-Vascular bundle

19) Cuticle is absent in

(1) Roots
(2) Dicot Stem
(3) Leaves
(4) Monocot stem

20) How many in the list given below are the part of ground tissue system ?
Epidermis, Root hairs, Xylem, Phloem, Cortex, Pericycle, Pith

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

21) The three types of tissue systems – epidermal, ground and vascular systems are classified
based on their-

(1) size
(2) Location and structure
(3) Function
(4) all the above are correct

22) Which of the following root modification provide support to main stem in maize and sugarcane ?

(1) Prop root

(2) Stilt root
(3) Foliar root
(4) Annulated root

23) In which one of following apocarpous condition is present ?

(1) Mustard
(2) Primrose
(3) Rose
(4) Dianthus

24) Tap root system is found in :-

(1) Monocots
(2) Dicot roots
(3) Onion
(4) Wheat

25) The root is covered at the apex by a thimble like structure called :-

(1) Root hair

(2) Prop root
(3) Meristematic cells
(4) Root cap

26) Which of the following is incorrect :-

(1) Reticulate venation is characteristic of most dicotyledonous plants

(2) Parallel venation is characteristic of most monocotyledons
(3) In neem pinnately compound leaf is found
(4) In silk cotton pinnately compound leaf is found
27) In _____ aestivation, sepals or petals in a whorl just touch one another at the margins, without
overlapping, as is found in _____ :-

(1) Valvate, Calotropis

(2) Valvate, Hibiscus
(3) Twisted, Calotropis
(4) Twisted, Hibiscus

28) Which one of the following option give the correct placentation ?

Marginal Axile Parietal Free central

Placentation Placentation Placentation Placentation

(1) Primrose Pea Mustard Tomato

(2) Pea Primrose Tomato Mustard

(3) Pea Tomato Mustard Primrose

(4) Mustard Tomato Primrose Pea

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

29) According to given diagram, find out the type of flower and position of ovary :-

(1) Epigynous - ovary superior

(2) Hypogynous - ovary inferior
(3) Hypogynous - ovary superior
(4) Epigynous - ovary inferior

30)

Given below is the diagram of monocotyledons seed and identify the parts labelled A, B, C, D.
 Part A Part B Part C Part D

(1) Endosperm Scutellum Coleoptile Coleorhiza

(2) Scutellum Endosperm Coleorhiza Coleoptile

(3) Scutellum Coleorhiza Coleoptile Endosperm

(4) Coleorhiza Coleoptile Scutellum Endosperm

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

31) Recognise the figure and find out the correct matching :–

(1) (a) Epicarp (b) Mesocarp (c) Endocarp (d) Seed

(2) (a) Pericarp (b) Endocarp (c) Mesocarp (d) Seed

(3) (a) Epicarp (b) Mesocarp (c) Seed (d) Endocarp

(4) (a) Pericarp (b) Mesocarp (c) Seed (d) Endocarp

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

32) With respect to the figure given above which of the following is in a proper match
 A B C D

(1) Ovary Anther Filament Sepal

(2) Stigma Filament Pollen Sepal

(3) Ovary Stigma Anther Petal

(4) Ovary Tepal Sporangia Calyx

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

33) Which of the following is not included in stomatal apparatus :-

(1) Stomatal aperture

(2) Guard cells
(3) Subsidiary cells
(4) Sclerenchymatous cells

34) Microspore are produced from the microspore mother cells after :-

(1) Mitotic division

(2) Differentiation
(3) Meiotic division
(4) Free nuclear division

35) Water containing cavities in vascular bundles are found in :-

(1) Cycas
(2) Pinus
(3) Sunflower
(4) Maize

36) Aestivation of petals in the flower of cotton is correctly shown in :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) Identify the correct features of Mango and Coconut fruits.

(i) In both fruit is a drupe
(ii) Endocarp is edible in both
(iii) Mesocarp in Coconut is fibrous, and in Mango it is fleshy
(iv) In both, fruit develops from monocarpellary ovary
Select the correct option from below :

(1) (i), (iii) and (iv) only

(2) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
(3) (i) and (iv) only
(4) (i) and (ii) only

38) Identify in order the plant showing alternate, opposite and whorled phyllotaxy :-

(1) China rose, Calotropis and Alstonia

(2) China rose, Alstonia and Calotropis
(3) Alstonia, Calotropis and China rose
(4) Calotropis, Alstonia and China rose

39) Study the sentences carefully and give the answer.

(A) When a flower can be divided into two equal radial halves through any plane, it is zygomorphic.
(B) Mustard, datura and chilli are examples of actinomorphic flowers
(C) Pea, gulmohur, bean, Cassia are examples of zygomorphic flowers. (D) If a fruit is formed
without fertilisation of the ovary, it is called geocarpic fruit.

(1) Both A and B are correct

(2) Both C and D are correct
(3) Both A and D are incorrect
(4) Both B and D are incorrect

40) Statement-I : In some seeds such as castor the endosperm formed as a result of double
fertilisation is a food storing tissue.
Statement-II : Castor seeds are endospermic.

(1) Statement I and II both are correct.

(2) Statement I and II both are incorrect
(3) Only statement I is correct
(4) Only statement II is correct

41) Which of the following is true for nucleolus ?

(1) It takes part in spindle formation.

(2) It is a membrane bound structure.
(3) Larger nucleoli are present in dividing cells.
(4) It is a site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis

42) Lysosomes are _______ vesicular structures formed by the process of packaging in the _______.

(1) Membrane bound, Golgi apparatus

(2) Non-membrane bound, Golgi apparatus
(3) Membrane bound, ER
(4) Non-membrane bound, ER

43) ______ is directly connected to the outer nuclear membrane :-

(1) Mitochondria
(2) Golgi body
(3) ER
(4) Chloroplasts

44) Cis and trans - face of golgibody are : -

(1) Completely similar but interconnected

(2) Completely similar but not interconnected
(3) Entirely different but interconnected
(4) Entirely different but not interconnected

45) Which cell wall is capable of growth and gradually diminishes as cell matures ?

(1) Primary cell wall

(2) Secondary cell wall
(3) Tertiary cell wall
(4) Primary and secondary cell wall

46) Microtubules, microfilaments and intermediate filaments are components of the :-

(1) Chromosome in eukaryotes

(2) Chromosome in prokaryotes
(3) Plasma membrane in prokaryotes
(4) Cytoskeleton

47) The stroma of chloroplast contains enzymes required for the synthesis of :-

(1) Carbohydrate and proteins

(2) Only carbohydrate
(3) Carbohydrate and lipid
(4) Steroid

48) The interphase nucleus has highly extended nucleoprotein fibres called :-

(1) Chromosomes
(2) Chromatin
(3) Chromatid
(4) Pericentriolar satellite

49) Select Correct option

(1) Lysosome – Suicidal bag

(2) Ribosome – Lipid synthesis
(3) Mitochondria – Grana
(4) SER – Prokaryotic Cell

50) Where does ETC occur?

(1) Inner membrane of mitochondria

(2) Outer membrane of mitochondria
(3) Matrix of mitochondria
(4) Inner membrane of nucleus

51) Statement-I : Cell membrane show fluidity.

Statement-II : Fluidity is due to presence of proteins.

(1) Both statements are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct.
(4) Both statements are incorrect.

52) Identify the A, B, C & D in given figure and choose right option regarding them :-
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

53) The most dramatic period of the cell cycle :-

(1) Interphase
(2) S-phase
(3) M-phase
(4) Cytokinesis

54) The sequence of events by which a cell duplicates its genome, synthesise the other constituents
of cells and eventually divides into two daughter cells is termed as

(1) Cytology
(2) Cell division
(3) Cell cycle
(4) Cell biology

55) In which phase initiation of the assembly of mitotic spindle takes place :

(1) Prophase
(2) Metaphase
(3) Anaphase
(4) Telophase

56) A-Centromere split and chromatids separate, B–Chromatids move to opposite poles.
Above given statements are correct for which stage of cell division :

(1) Interkinesis
(2) Interphase
(3) Telophase
(4) Anaphase
57) In which stage of cell division, chromosomal structure is best observed ?

(1) Prophase
(2) Interphase
(3) Metaphase
(4) Telophase

58) Read the following statements (A-D).

(A) DNA is an acidic substance
(B) The two chains of DNA have antiparallel polarity
(C) 5-Methyl uracil is another chemical name of thymine
(D) The two chains of B-DNA are coiled in a right handed fashion How many of above statements are
correct ?

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1

59) Which of the following compounds are substituted pyrimidines :-

(1) Adenine, Guanine, Thymine

(2) Thymine, Cytosine, Uracil
(3) Adenine, Uracil, Guanine
(4) Thymine, Uracil, Adenine

60) Given below structure represent :-

(1) Nucleotide of DNA

(2) Nucleotide of RNA
(3) Nucleoside of DNA
(4) Nucleoside of RNA

61)

No. of Nucleotide
Organism
and Base Pair

(i) ϕ × 174 A 4.6 × 106 bp

(ii) Lambda bacteriophage B 3.3 × 109 bp

(iii) [Link] C 5386 Nucleotide

 (iv) Human D 48502 bp

Following match is correct

(1) i = D, ii = C, iii = B, iv = A
(2) i = B, ii = D, iii = A, iv = B
(3) i = A, ii = D, iii = C, iv = B
(4) i = C, ii = D, iii = A, iv = B

62) In Oswald Avery, Colin MacLeod and Maclyn McCarty experiment transforming substance was
digested by using :-

(1) DNase
(2) RNase
(3) Proteases
(4) High temperature

63) Which of following DNA strand required many RNA primers at the time of DNA replication :-

(1) Leading strand

(2) Lagging strand
(3) Both
(4) None

64) Which of the following act as substrate as well as provide energy for polymerisation reaction
during DNA replication ?

(1) Ribonucleoside triphosphate

(2) Deoxyribonucleoside monophosphate
(3) Deoxyribonucleoside diphosphate
(4) Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphate

65) In Meselson and Stahl experiment they used which compound as the source of nitrogen ?

(1) NaNO3
(2) NH4Cl
(3) C6H5-NH2
(4) HCN

66) Match the List-I with List-II

(1) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (iii), (d) - (i)
(2) (a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv)
(3) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)
(4) (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)

67) Who provides binding site for RNA polymerase enzyme, in a Transcription unit?

(1) Promoter
(2) Terminator
(3) Template strand
(4) Coding strand

68) Given below are two statements: One is labelled as

Statement-I and the other is labelled as Statement-II
Statement-I: Both the strands of DNA are copied during transcription.
Statement-II: Double stranded RNA prevents Translation.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both statement-I and II are correct and statement-II is the correct explanation of statement-I
(2) Both statement-I and II are correct but statement-II is not the correct explanation of statement-I
(3) Statement-I is not correct but Statement-II is correct
(4) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

69)
The above figure represents

(1) Chain termination during transcription

(2) Chain initiation in the presence of ρ factor
(3) Chain elongation catalysed by RNA polymerase alone
(4) Binding of ρ factor with promoter sequence on DNA

70) Find the incorrect match

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

71) In frameshift mutation, there is :

(1) No change in the reading frame

(2) Insertion or deletion of one or two bases
(3) Addition of single amino acid in the polypeptide
(4) Conversion of purine to pyrimidine or vice versa

72) Which of the following t-RNA is not present in the cell ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

73) Match the components of 'Lac operon' of E. coli with their functions. Choose the answer with
correct combination of alphabets of the two columns.

Column-I Components
Column-II Function
of 'lac operon'
 A Structural gene p Binding site for repressor protein

B Operator gene q Codes for repressor protein

Induces lactose transport from the

C Promoter gene r
medium

D Regulator gene s Codes for enzyme protein

t Binding site for RNA polymerase

(1) A = r, B = s, C = t, D = P
(2) A = q, B = t, C = p, D = r
(3) A = t,B = s, C = q, D = P
(4) A = s, B = p, C = t, D = q

74) Statement-1: Expressed Sequence Tags (ESTs) was the approach focused on identifying all the
genes that are expressed as RNA.
Statement-2: The sequence of chromosome 1 was completed in May 2003.

(1) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are correct.

(2) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are incorrect.
(3) Only Statement-1 is correct.
(4) Only Statement-2 is correct.

75) Select the correct match:

(1) Alec Jeffreys - Streptococcus pneumoniae

(2) Jacob and Monod - Lac Operon
(3) Khorana - Pisum sativum
(4) Nirenberg - DNA Fingerprinting

76) What is it that forms the basis of DNA fingerprinting?

(1) The relative amount of DNA in the ridges and grooves of the fingerprints.
(2) The relative proportions of purine and pyrimidines in DNA.
(3) The relative difference in the DNA occurrence in blood, skin and saliva.
(4) Satellite DNA in which a small stretch of DNA is repeated many times.

77) A transcription unit in prokaryotes usually contains

(1) Structural genes flanked by promoter in upstream and terminator in downstream

(2) Structural genes flanked by terminator in upstream and promoter in downstream
(3) Structural genes flanked by a promoter in upstream and an enhancer in downstream
(4) Structural genes flanked by a receptor gene in upstream and a promoter in downstream

78) Select the correct features about Lac operon

(a) Regulation of lac operon by repressor is referred to as negative regulation as well
(b) Lac operon is under control of positive regulation
(c) B-galactosidase is coded by Lac z gene

(1) Only (a)

(2) Both (b) and (c) only
(3) (a) , (b) and (c)
(4) Only (b)

79) Assertion : A very low level of expression of lac operon has to be present in the cell all the time.
Reason : A very low level of expression of lac operon is always required in a cell otherwise lactose
cannot enter the cells.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are True and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are False.

80) Assertion : The UTRs are present at both 5' -end (before start codon) and at 3' -end (after stop
codon) of mRNA.
Reason : UTRs are required for efficient transcription process.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

81) Assertion : Regulation of Lac operon by repressor is referred to as negative regulation.

Reason : The repressor protein binds to operator region of the operon and prevents RNA
polymerase from transcripting the operon.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

82) Statement I : Lac operator is present only in lac - operon and it interacts specifically with lac-
repressor only.
Statement II : Each operon doesn't have specific operator and specific repressor.

(1) Statement I & II both are correct

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Statement I & II both are incorrect

83) Statement-I: The probability of DNA polymorphism would be higher in non-coding DNA
sequence.
Statement-II: Mutation in non-coding sequences may not have any immediate effect in an
individual's reproductive ability.
(1) Statement I & II both are correct.
(2) Statement I is correct but II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but II is correct.
(4) Statement I & II both are incorrect.

84) Read the following statements with respect to HGP and choose the correct set of statements :
(a) Human Genome Project (HGP) was called a mega project.
(b) In HGP the commonly used hosts were Algae and Viruses.
(c) Chromosome 1 has fewest genes and the Y has the most genes.
(d) Repeated sequences make up very large portion of the human genome.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :-

(1) (a) and (c) only

(2) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (a), (c) and (d) only
(4) (a) and (d) only

85) Statement-I:- Both strands of DNA are copied during transcription.

Statement-II:- The principle of complementarity governs the process of transcription.

(1) Statement I and II both are correct

(2) Statement I and II both are incorrect
(3) Only Statement I is correct
(4) Only Statement II is correct

86) Given below are two statements :

Statement-I :- Depending on base composition (A : T rich or G:C rich), length of segment, and
number of repetitive units, the satellite DNA is classified into many categories.
Statement-II :- Satellite DNA normally code for many proteins.
In the light of above Statement choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

87)

Given diagram represent the component of a transcription unit select the correct ans regarding it:

A B C D

Template Coding
(1) Terminator Promoter
strand strand
 Coding Template
(2) Promoter Terminator
strand strand

Template Coding
(3) Promoter Terminator
strand strand

Coding Template
(4) Terminator Promoter
strand strand
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

88) Match the Column-I with Column-II

Column-I Column-II

A Largest gene i Chromosome 1

B Smallest gene ii 1.4 million

C SNP iii SRY

D Maximum gene iv Dystrophin

(1) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv
(2) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv
(3) A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i
(4) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i

89) Match column - I and column - II w.r.t the various aspects of human genome project and select
the correct option as the answer -

Column -I Column - II

Expressed sequence
(a) (i) At about 1.4 million locations.
tags

(b) Sequence annotation (ii) Genes that are expressed as RNA

Whole set of genome containing all

(c) Bioinformatics (iii)
coding and non coding sequence.

Single nucleotide High speed computational devices for

(d) (iv)
polymorphism. storage, retrieval and analysis of data.
(1) a - (ii) b - (i) c - (iv) d - (iii)
(2) a - (ii) b - (iii) c - (iv) d - (i)
(3) a - (i) b - (ii) c - (iii) d - (iv)
(4) a - (iv) b - (iii) c - (ii) d - (i)

90) Find out the incorrect for AUG :-

(1) Code for methionine
(2) Dual function
(3) Recognised by RF (Releasing factor)
(4) Initiator codon

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 3 4 4 3 2 2 2 1 4 2 4 4 1 2 4 4 2 4 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 4 2 3 2 2 1 2 3 2 1 3 1 3 2 1 4 1 3 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 4 1 3 4

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 2 2 2 2 2 1 2 1 3 3 4 3 1 2 4 1 2 3 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 3 3 2 4 3 1 1 1 3 3 4 3 3 2 3 4 4 3 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 3 4 4 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 1 2 4 1 4 1 1 3 2 4 2 1 1 2 1 1 2 1 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 2 3 2 4 4 1 3 3 1 3 3 4 3 4 3 1 1 3 1
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 1 3 3 1 4 1 2 1 1 2 3 3 3 1 4 3 1 2 2
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 4 1 2 4 2 3 1 3 3 1 2 2 4 3 2 4 1 3 1 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 1 2 1 4 4 2 1 4 2 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) I = I1 + I2

I = + =

2) Angular momentum = Iω = constant

As tortoise moves along diametre from edge to centre I decreases So ω increases. When
tortoise passes through centre and moves towards edge I increases so ω decreases upto initial
value.

3)

Disc: → Ring: → Ma2

Square laming: →
square made of 4 rods: →

(maximum)

4)

Moment of Inertia of the Full Disc (Ifull):

Let the mass of the full disc be Mfull

Ifull = MfullR²

Moment of Inertia of the Removed Portion (Ihole):

Let the mass of the removed portion (the hole) be Mhole

Ihole = Mhole r2

Mass per unit area (σ) =

Mfull = σ Afull =
Mhole = σ Ahole =

Hence, option (4) is correct.

5) mass of each disk

m= M
so I = Isqure - 4Ihole

= MR2 – 10 mR2 [∵ ]

6)

I = MK2
I = 20 × (0.4)2
I = 3.2 kg m2

7)

Normal shfit towards point of rotation.

8) y=x+4

∴
∴ L = mvb =
∴ L = 60 units

9) Required fraction
=

10) In equilibrium, torques of forces mg and Mg about an axis passing through O balance each
other.

mg cos30° = Mg cos60° ⇒

11)

τ = 20 × F – 40 × F + 60 × F – 80 F
= – 40 F

12)

Velocity: Velocity is a vector quantity with both magnitude (speed) and direction. While the
magnitude (speed) is constant, the direction of the velocity vector (tangent to the circle)
changes continuously as the particle moves along the circular path.

Acceleration: Acceleration is also a vector quantity. In uniform circular motion, the

acceleration (centripetal acceleration) is directed towards the center of the circle. Its
magnitude is constant (a = v2/r), but its direction changes continuously as the particle moves
along the circular path.
Therefore, both velocity and acceleration change in direction

13)
T' = m(2ω0)2(2ℓ) = 8 mω2ℓ = 8T0

14)

ωrel =

ωrel =
ωrel =

15)

• At A: NA = mg +

• At B: NB = mg +

Since rA < rB, we get

>
Thus, NA > NB

16)

v = 0.88 cm/s

17) • In uniform circular motion, the velocity vector continuously changes direction, but since
the speed remains constant the kinetic energy of the particle does not change.
• The centripetal force acting on the particle is always directed towards the center of the
circle, and since the displacement is tangential to the circle, the angle between force and
displacement is 90°. In this case no work is done because the force does not contribute to
changing the particle's speed (Since cos(90°) = 0)
Thus, the correct answer is : no work is done.

18) 2mg – T = 2ma

T – mg = ma

a=

19) ⇒ ⇒ α = 180 kg/s

20) F = 600 – 2 × 105t = 0 ⇒ t = 3 × 10–3 sec

Impulse I = =

21) For the equilibrium of block of mass M1 :

Frictional force, ƒ = tension in the string (T)
where T = ƒ = µ(m + M1)g .....(i)
For the equilibrium of block of mass M2 :
T = M2g .....(ii)

From (i) and (ii) µ(m + M1)g = M2g m=

22) For uniform velocity, acceleration is zero. Hence resultant force will be zero.
∴
or
or

23) where So

24)

acceleration
force applied on block = Ma

25) a1 = 2m/s2 T1 = 800N (mg–T1 = ma1)

a2 = 0 T2 = 1000 N (T2 = mg)
a3 = –4 m/s2 T3 = 1400 N (T3 – mg = ma3)
T1 : T2 : T3 : : 4 : 5 : 7

26) The only force which can provide horizontal acceleration to m block is normal force. W =
ΔKE

W= = 50J

27) Kf = Ki ⇒ vf =
a = µg [as f = µmg]

0 0
So = v – µg t ⇒ µ =

28)

∴
∴

29) w = ∵ τ = Fr = 30 × 30 × 10–2 N.m

W.D. = τ = 9 N.m
= 9 × π = 9 × 3.14 J

30)

so is along y-direction

31) Suppose neutral point N lies at a distance x from dipole of moment p or at a distance

x2 from dipole of 64p. At N,|E. F. due to dipole –1| = |E. F. due to

dipole –2|

⇒ ⇒ x = 5 cm

32)
33)

=
E-field is different for diff points on the surface.

34) So E = E1 – E2 – E3

35)
Vp = Pot. due to charge q1
+ Pot. due to charge –q1
+ Pot. due to surface charge

=
option (2)
36) (θ = 180°)

EInfinite wire = (d = R)
λ1 = λ2

37) Width of central bright fringe

= 2.4 × 10–3 m
= 2.4 mm

38) l = 6000 Å
C.F. is shifted to 4th bright fring
µ = 1.5 and Dx = 4λ
⇒ Dx = (µ – 1)t = nλ
⇒ (1.5 – 1)t = 4 × 6000 × 10–10
t = 48000 × 10–10 Þ 4.8 × 10–6 m = 4.8 µm

39)

I = 4I0

0
I =

40)

Δx = (2n–1) = (2 × 3 – 1) ×
= 1.5 × 10–6 m = 1.5 μm

41)

(µ – 1)t = λ ⇒ (1.5 – 1)t = λ, t = 2λ

42)

0
I = I cos2

43) a sinθ = 2d

sinθ =
θ = 30o
 44)

45) I = Imax

cos ⇒ ⇒ϕ=

Δx = ϕ=

⇒y=

CHEMISTRY

46) [CoF6]3– is outer complex.

sp3d2 hybridisation.

47) Ni(CO)4 is tetrahedral with sp3-hybridization, [Ni(CN)4]2– is square planar with

dsp2 hybridization and [NiCl4]2– is tetrahedral with sp3-hybridization.

48)

NCERT Pg. No. 252

49)

NCERT Pg. No. 243

50)

NCERT Pg. No. 245

51)

Fe+2
Cr+3
Cu+2 n = 1
Zn+2 n = 0
NCERT - XII, Part-I, Page No. 254, Edition 21-22

52) Concept:
Crystal Field Theory (CFT)
Solution:

[Sc(H₂O)₆]³⁺ is colourless because Sc³⁺ has a d⁰ configuration, preventing d-d transitions.

The reason correctly explains the assertion: no d-d transition in Sc³⁺ leads to its
colourlessness.

53) EDTA have 2 'N' and 4 'O' donar atoms.

54)

[Ni(NH3)6]2+
Ni+2 = 3d8 ; NH3 → SFL

Outer orbital complex

2 unpaired e–, So Paramagnetic

55) Cr3+ :- 3d3, NH3 → Strong field ligand

56)

NCERT Class-12th, Part-2, Article No. 5.5.4

Page no. 132, Edition - 2023-24

57) Conceptual.

58)

H2O(g) → H2O(ℓ) ; ΔH = –ve

59)

ΔG = ΔH – TΔS
ΔH = ΔG + TΔS
= 20000 + 200 × (–20)
= 16000 J/mol
Using Kirchoff's equation,
ΔH2 – ΔH1 = ΔCp (T2 – T1)
ΔH2 = ΔH1 + ΔCp (T2 – T1)
= 16000 + 20 (400 – 200)
= 20000 J/mol
= 20 kJ/mol.

60)

N2(g) + 2H2(g) —→ N2H4(g)

ΔfH (N2H4, g)
= (941 + 2 × 436) – (159 + 4 × 398)
= 1813 – 1751 = 62 kJ mol–1

61)

It is endothermic reaction.

62)

H2(g) + O2(g) → H2O(g) ; ΔH = –249 kJ

–249 = BEH–H + BEO=O – 2BEO – H

63)

Based on fact

64) NCERT-XI, Pg # 182, [Link]. 6.5

65) C + 2H2 → CH4; ΔH = ?

ΔH = (i) + 2 × (ii) – (iii)
= –94.2 + (2 × –68.3) + 210.8 = –20 kcal

66)

More is formation enthalpy less the stability of product formed.

67) NCERT, Pg. # 172

68) NCERT, July 2021, Pg. no. # 173

 69)
∴x<y

70)

Using the direct relationship =

Final Answer :- (4)

71)

Spontaneity requires ΔG < 0.

A. (a) ΔH > 0, ΔS > 0 : ΔG = (+) –T(+). Spontaneous if TΔS > ΔH (high T). Matches (s).
B. (b) ΔH < 0, ΔS > 0 : ΔG = (–) –T(+). Always negative. Spontaneous at all T. Matches (p).
C. (c) ΔH > 0, ΔS < 0 : ΔG = (+) –T(–). Always positive. Non-spontaneous at all T. Matches (q).
D. (d) ΔH < 0, ΔS < 0 : ΔG = (–) –T(–). Spontaneous if |ΔH| > T|ΔS| (low T). Non-spontaneous at
high T. Matches (r).

Final Answer
The correct matching is a-s; b-p; c-q; d-r. Option (3)

72)

NCERT Page No. # 30

73) Distance between 3rd and 2nd orbit of H atom
= r3 – r2

= 0.529 × 10–8 cm.

= 5 × 0.529 × 10 = 2.646 × 10–8 cm
–8

74)

Based on fact

75)

PCC is different

76) CH3–CH2–CH2–NH–CH3,
CH3–CH2–NH–CH2–CH3
Possible 2° Amine → 3

77)

78)

Arrangment of Hydrocarbon group is change so both are metamers of each other.

79)

80) t = 2n = 24 = 16

81) In glucose 3 'OH' group must be on same side. In (L) form of glucose 3 'OH' group must be
on left hand side.

82)
Show GI because three sp3 C-atom are bonded with different atoms/groups.
83) HO—CH2—CH2—F

Due to H-bonding this conformer is most stable.

84)
(A) and (B) are not mirror images, So (A) and (B) are diastereomers.

85)

86)
Bulky group at ortho position so both phenyl group are perpendicular to each other so
optically active compound.

87)

(P) → Optically inactive but no chiral carbon.

(Q) → No POS, No COS, so optically active.
(R) → Having two chiral C and have POS.
 88)

89)

Concept:
E-Z configuration
Soln/Explanation:

90)

Stability

BIOLOGY

91)

Question Explanation: Chromosome number during mitotic metaphase.

Concept: Mitosis and cell division.

Solution: The number of chromosomes remains the same during metaphase as it was in the
parent cell. Chromosomes align at the metaphase plate, but they haven't been pulled apart yet.
Each chromosome consists of two sister chromatids, but it is still counted as a single
chromosome.

Final Answer: 42

92) NCERT Pg. # 103

93) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 122,123,124

94) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 246, Fig. # 15.8

95)

The onion root tip cell has 16 chromosomes (2n).

1. G1 Phase→ 16 chromosomes (normal diploid number).
2. Metaphase → 16 chromosomes (sister chromatids present but still counted as 16).
3. Anaphase→ 32 chromosomes (sister chromatids separate, now counted as individual
chromosomes).
4. After M-phase → 16 chromosomes (mitosis produces two identical daughter cells, each with
16 chromosomes). Correct Answer: (1) 16, 16, 32, 16

96)

SOLUTION —
In a cell with 2C DNA in metaphase, the DNA amount in anaphase (x) is 2C, in G1 phase (y) is
C, and after M-phase (z) is C.

The correct answer is: OPTION(3) (x)-2c, (y) -c, (z)-c

97) NCERT XI Pg. # 163 & 168

98)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 85

99)

Question Explanation:Identifying a missing structure in monocot stems.

Concept:Monocot Stem Anatomy

Solution:In most monocot stems, the phloem tissue is made up of sieve tubes and companion
cells. However, phloem parenchyma is a type of tissue that is typically absent.

Final Answer:Option 3: Phloem parenchyma

100) NCERT Pg.#84 Para-6.1

101)
Classroom teaching conceptual

102) NCERT XI Pg. # 91, Ist Paragraph

103)

NCERT XIth Pg.# 87

104)

NCERT XI Pg. # 93, 94, Para No. # 6.3.6

105) NCERT-XI, Pg # 90-93, para 6.3.1,6.3.2,6.3.3,6.3.4

106) NCERT Pg. # 91

107)

NCERT Pg # 89

108) Question Explanation: Identifying parts of a plant stem.

Concept: Anatomy of Dicot Stem
Solution: The diagram shows a cross-section of a dicot stem. The outermost layer, labeled a,
is the epidermis. Just beneath it is the hypodermis, labeled b. The vascular bundles are
arranged in a ring, and are labeled c. The tissue filling the central part of the stem, labeled d,
is the ground tissue.
Final Answer: a-Epidermis, b-Hypodermis, c-Vascular bundle, d-Ground tissue

109)

Cuticle is present only in aerial parts. So, in roots it is absent.

The correct option is 1.

110) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 72, cortex, pericycle and pith

111) NCERT_11_PG_88_2021-22

112) NCERT XI Pg # 67

113) NCERT XI Pg.# (E) 75

114) NCERT 11, Pg.# 65

115) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 67, Para-1, Line, 1, 2

116)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 70

117) NCERT Pg. # 74

118) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 75

119) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 62, 63

120) NCERT-XI Pg. # 77

121) NCERT Pg. # 76, Fig.-5.17

122)

XII NCERT Pg # 20

123) NCERT (XI) ; Page No. # 72

124) NCERT XII, Page # 22

125)

NCERT (XI) ; Page No. # 76

126)

Solution:

A. Twisted aestivation is a type where one margin of the petal overlaps the next one, and so
on, in a regular spiral manner.

B. Cotton flowers exhibit twisted aestivation.

In Option 3, the petals are arranged in a way that shows one margin overlapping the next in a
consistent direction, demonstrating twisted aestivation.

The correct answer is Option 3.

127)

Solution-

In mango and coconut, the fruit is known as a drupe .They develop from monocarpellary
superior ovaries and are one seeded. In mango the pericarp is well differentiated into an outer
thin epicarp, a middle fleshy edible mesocarp and an inner stony hard endocarp. In coconut
which is also a drupe, the mesocarp is fibrous and edible part is endosperm.
The correct answer is -(1)

128) NCERT XI Pg. # 71

129) NCERT XI Pg.# 62, 65

130) NCERT-XI Pg#77

131) NCERT Pg. # 100

132)

NCERT-XI Pg#96

133)

NCERT Pg. # 100

134) NCERT Pg. # 134

135) NCERT Pg. # 132, Para # 8.5.2

136) NCERT XI, Pg. # 136, Para 04

137) NCERT (XI) ; Page No. # 98

138)

NCERT (XI) ; Page No. # 121

139) Lysosome – Suicidal bag

140) Inner membrane of mitochondria

141) Module Pg. # 170

142) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 137, fig. 8.9(b)

143) Question Explanation :

The question asks to identify the most "dramatic" period of the cell cycle.

Concept :
This question is based on M-phase (Mitosis).

Explanation:
"The M phase is the most dramatic period of the cell cycle involving a major reorganisation of
virtually all components of the cell."

Final answer : 3

144) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 162

145) NCERT XI Pg.#164 (2 last line from bottom)

146) NCERT XI Pg.#165 (2nd para) (III line)

147)

Question Explanation: Identifying the stage with the clearest chromosome view.

Concept: Mitosis and chromosome structure.

Solution: Metaphase is the best stage to observe chromosome structure because at this point,
chromosomes are fully condensed and aligned at the cell's equatorial plate, making them
highly visible and distinct under a microscope.

Final Answer: Metaphase

148) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 97, para 2,3,5

149)

Question Explanation: Pyrimidines are single-ring nitrogenous bases.

Concept: Nitrogenous Bases

Solution: Pyrimidines are a class of nitrogenous bases characterized by a single six-

membered ring structure. The pyrimidines found in nucleic acids are Thymine, Cytosine, and
Uracil.

Final Answer: Option(2). Thymine, Cytosine, Uracil

150) Explain Question : The question asks to identify what the provided structure
represents.

Concept : This question is based on Nucleotides.

Explanation : Since the sugar is ribose and a phosphate group is present, the structure
represents a nucleotide of RNA.

Final answer : 2

151)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 96, Para # 3

152) Question Explanation : The question asks which enzyme or method was used by Oswald
Avery, Colin MacLeod, and Maclyn McCarty to digest (break down) the transforming
substance in their 1944 experiment.
Concept : Search Of Genetic Material
Solution : The transforming substance was digested by using DNase
Final Answer : Option (1)

153)

Lagging strand

154)

Explain Question : The question is asking for the specific molecule that performs a dual
function during DNA replication.
Concept : This question is based on DNA replication
Explanation : “The DNA polymerases catalyse polymerisation only in one direction, that is 5′
→ 3′. The deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates serve dual purposes — as substrate and as source
of energy.”
Final answer : 4

155)

NH4Cl

156) NCERT [Link]. 112

157) NCERT [Link]. 108

158)
NCERT [Link]. 107

159) NCERT Page No. # 109

160) NCERT [Link]. 110

161) NCERT Reference: Class XII, Page No. 113,114

162)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 96
Stop codon not code for any amino acid because No any t-RNA available for these codons.

163)

NCERT XII Pg # 100, 101

164)

NCERT Pg. 119

165) NCERT-XII, Pg.- 99

166) NCERT Pg. - 121

167) NCERT_108_2021-22

168) NCERT_117_2021-22

169)

Explain Question: The question asks to analyse the given assertion and reason statements
and select the correct option.

Concept: Regulation of gene expression ( Lac Operon).

Solution:

Assertion : A very low level of expression of lac operon has to be present in the cell all the
time.

Reason : A very low level of expression of lac operon is always required in a cell otherwise
lactose cannot enter the cells.

Both Assertion and Reason are True and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
 Final answer: Both Assertion and Reason are True and the Reason is a correct explanation of
the Assertion.

170)

Question Explanation: Evaluation of Assertion and Reason regarding the location and
function of UTRs.

Concept: Structure and Function of mRNA UTRs

Solution:

Assertion: True. UTRs (Untranslated Regions) are indeed located at the 5'-end (before the start
codon) and the 3'-end (after the stop codon) of the mRNA molecule. They are not translated
into protein.

Reason: False. UTRs are sequences on the mRNA that are crucial for the efficient translation
(protein synthesis) process, by affecting mRNA stability and regulating ribosome binding. They
are not primarily required for transcription (DNA to mRNA synthesis), which involves
promoter and terminator sequences on the DNA.

Since the Assertion is True and the Reason is False, Option 3 is the correct choice.

Final Answer: 3
Assertion is True but the Reason is False.

171) NCERT XII Page No. # 100,101

172) NCERT-XII, Page # 100

173) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 106(E)/116(H)

174) NCERT, Pg # 119,120,121

175)

Explain Question :The question asks to determine which statement(s) is/are correct.
Concept : Transcription
Explanation :
Statement I - (wrong, only one strand is copied)

Statement II - (correct, complementarity governs transcription)

Final answer : Option (4)

176) NCERT, Pg # 105, 106

177) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 92 fig. 5.9

178)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 104

179)

NCERT XII (E) Pg. 119/118

180) Find out the incorrect for AUG :-

(1) Code for methionine
(2) Dual function
(3) Recognised by RF (Releasing factor)
(4) Initiator codon