20-07-2025

7501CMD303034250003 MD

PHYSICS

1) A particle shows distance-time curve as given in this [Link] maximum instantaneous velocity
of the particle is around the point :-

(1) D
(2) A
(3) B
(4) C

2) A ball is thrown upwards. Its height varies with time as shown in figure. If the acceleration due to
gravity is 7.5 m/s2, then the height h is

(1) 10 m
(2) 15 m
(3) 20 m
(4) 25 m

3) Motion of a particle is given by equation

s = (3t3 + 7t2 + 14t + 8)m The value of acceleration of the particle at t = 1 s is:-

(1) 10 m/s2
(2) 32 m/s2
(3) 23 m/s2
(4) 16 m/s2

4) The velocity of a particle moving on the x-axis is given by V = x2 + x where V is in m/s and x is in
m. Find its acceleration in m/s2 when passing through the point x = 2 m ?

(1) 0
(2) 5
(3) 11
(4) 30

5)

A pebble is thrown vertically upwards from a bridge with an initial velocity of 4.9 m/s. It strikes the
water after 2 s. The height of the bridge is :-

(1) 19.6 m
(2) 14.7 m
(3) 9.8 m
(4) 4.9 m

6)

A particle describes an angle 60° in a circular path with constant speed of 5 m/s. The change in
velocity of the particle is

(1) Zero
(2) 10 m/s
(3) 20 m/s
(4) 5 m/s

7)

The co-ordinates of a moving particle at any time t are given by x = αt3 and y = βt3. The speed of the
particle at time t is given by:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8)

A particle of unit mass undergoes one-dimensional motion such that its velocity varies according to
v(x) = βx–2n
Where β and n are constants and x is the position of the particle. The acceleration of the particle as
a function of x, is given by:

(1) –2nβ2x–4n–1
(2) –2β2x–2n+1
(3) –2nβ2e–4n+1
(4) –2nβ2x–2n–1

9)
Figure shows the displacement time graph of a particle moving on the X-axis.

(1) The particle is continuously going in positive x direction

(2) The particle is at rest
(3) The velocity increases up to a time t0, and then becomes constant
(4) The particle moves at a constant velocity up to time t0, and then stops

10)

A particle is thrown above, then correct v-t graph will be (upward direction is considered to be
positive)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) A body is thrown vertically upward. Which of the following graphs represents the velocity of the
body with time correctly?
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) The velocity at the maximum height of a projectile is half of its initial velocity of projection u. Its
range on the horizontal plane is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

13) Three particles A, B and C are projected from the same point with the same initial speeds
making angle 30º, 45º and 60º respectively with the horizontal. Which of the following statements is
correct?

(1) A, B and C have unequal ranges.

(2) Ranges of A and C are equal and smaller than that of B.
(3) Ranges of A and C are equal and greater than that of B.
(4) A, B and C have equal ranges.

14) A river is flowing from west to east at a speed of 5 meters per minute. A man on the south of the
river, capable of swimming at 10 meters of per minute in still water, wants to swim across the river
in the shortest time. He should swim in a direction:

(1) due north

(2) 30º east of north
(3) 30º west of north
(4) 60º east of north

15) If position time relation for a particle is given by t = . Then the time after which velocity
becomes zero :

(1) 2 sec
(2)
(3)
(4) None

16) A coin is dropped in a lift. It takes time t1 to reach the floor when lift is stationary. It takes time t2
when lift is moving up with constant acceleration, then

(1) t1 = t2
(2) t1 > t2
(3) t2 > t1
(4) t1 >> t2

17) For a particle moving along x-axis, acceleration is given as a = 2V2. If the speed of the particle is
V0 at x = 0, find speed as a function of x :

x
(1) V = V0e
2x
(2) V = V0e
–x
(3) V = V0e
4x
(4) V = V0e

18) Two particles P and Q falling freely under gravity. Then FALSE statement is

(1) their relative acceleration is constant

(2) their relative velocity is constant
(3) their centre of mass has constant velocity
(4) their centre of mass has constant acceleration

19) An object is moving as shown in graph in a straight line. Then pick the correct option for the part
shown in graph.

(1) Acceleration is constant

(2) Acceleration is changing its sign with time.
(3) Speed is constant
(4) acceleration is increasing with x.

20) Two boys Ram (R) and Lakhan (L) are moving towards each other with speed 2 m/s relative to
train. Length of train is 20 m and train is running towards east with speed 2 m/s. Find time when
they meet.
(1) 4 s
(2) 2 s
(3) 5 s
(4) 6 s

21) If system is in equilibrium find F′ in terms of F :- ​

(1) F
(2)
(3)

(4)

22) In the following figure, if the table and pulley are frictionless and strings are weightless, then

the acceleration of the system will be :-

(1) 3.2 m/s2

(2) 2.5 m/s2
(3) 1.8 m/s2
(4) 1.4 m/s2

23) Three blocks of mass 1 kg, 4 kg and 2 kg are placed on a smooth horizontal plane as shown in
the figure. The contact force between 1 kg block and 4 kg block is :-

(1) 100 N
(2) 120 N
(3) 50 N
(4) 110 N
24) A block of mass 5 kg is projected on a horizontal surface with a velocity of 10 m/s. If it comes to
rest after 2 sec, then what will be the cofficient of friction ?

(1) 0.2
(2) 0.3
(3) 0.4
(4) 0.5

25) A block of mass m = 2 kg is resting on a rough inclined plane of inclination 30° as shown in
figure. The coefficient of friction between the block and the plane is μ = 0.5. What minimum force F
should be applied perpendicular to the plane on the block, so that block does not slip on the plane (g

= 10 m/s2) ?

(1) zero
(2) 6.24 N
(3) 2.68 N
(4) 4.34 N

26) A block of weight 5N pushed against a vertical wall by a force of 12 N. If µ = 0.8 Find the
magnitude of force exerted by the wall on the block.

(1) 12 N
(2) 13 N
(3) 17 N
(4) 16 N

27)
If friction coefficient between blocks is 0.5 and ground is frictionless then find out acceleration of 8
kg block for figure shown.

(1) 5 m/s2
(2) 6 m/s2
(3) 4 m/s2
(4) remain at rest

28) Two blocks of masses m and 2m are connected by a light string passing over a frictionless
pulley. As shown in the figure, the mass m is placed on a smooth inclined plane of inclination 30°
and 2m hangs vertically. If the system is released, the blocks move with an acceleration equal to :

(1) g/4
(2) g/3
(3) g/2
(4) g

29) If the block A & B is given system are in equillibrium, then mass of B should be :-

(1) 2 kg
(2) 3 kg
(3) 4 kg
(4) 24 kg

30) A bullet is fired from a gun. The force on the bullet is given by F = 600 – 2 × 105 t, where F is in
newtons and t in seconds. The force on the bullet becomes zero as soon as it leaves the barrel. What
is the average impulse imparted to the bullet ?

(1) 9 Ns
(2) Zero
(3) 0.9 Ns
(4) 1.8 Ns

31) Two bodies of mass 3 kg and 4 kg are suspended at the ends of masseless string passing over a
fricitionless pulley. The acceleration of the system is (g = 9.8 m/s2) :-

(1) 4.9 m/s2

(2) 2.45 m/s2
(3) 1.4 m/s2
(4) 9.5 m/s2

32) A rope lies on a table such that a part of it hangs down the table. When the length of hanging
part is 1/3 of entire length the rope just begins to slide. The coefficient of friction between the rope
and the table is :-

(1) 2/3
(2) 1/2
(3) 1/3
(4) 1/6

33) In the figure acceleration of A is 1 m/s2 upwards, acceleration of B is 7 m/s2 upwards and
acceleration of C is 2 m/s2 upward.
The acceleration of D will be :-

(1) 7 m/s2 downwards

(2) 2 m/s2 downwards
(3) 10 m/s2 downwards
(4) 10 m/s2 upwards

34) Two particles A and B are released from the top of incline. If mA > mB then :

(1) Both will reach simultaneously if A is released before B

(2) Both will reach simultaneously if A is released after B
(3) Both will reach simultaneously if both are released together.
(4) Both may reach simultaneously if both are released together and A is given some initial velocity.

35) A lift is accelerating up with acceleration g/2 as shown in the figure. Find reading of the spring

balance present in the lift. (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 18 kg
(2) 16 kg
(3) 24 kg
(4) 36 kg

36) The velocity of body C is :-

(1) 6 m/s upwards

(2) 14 m/s downwards
(3) 7 m/s downwards
(4) will remain at rest

37) The minimum acceleration that must be imparted to the cart in the figure so that the block A will
not fall (given µ is the coefficient of friction between the surfaces of block and cart) is given by :-

(1) µg
(2) g/µ

(3)

(4)

38) Calculate the tensions T1, T2 and T3 in the three threads shown in the following figure. (All

threads are mass less) (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 30 N, 40 N, 50 N
(2) 50 N, 30 N, 40 N
(3) 35 N, 45 N, 40 N
(4) 30 N, 50 N, 40 N

39) Three equal weights A, B and C of mass 2kg each are hanging on a string passing over a fixed
frictionless pulley as shown in the fig. The tension in the string connecting weights B and C is (g =
9.8 m/s2) :-

(1) Zero
(2) 13N
(3) 3.3N
(4) 19.6N

40) Two blocks each of mass m are resting on a frictionless inclined plane as shown in figure. Then -

(1) The block A moves down the plane

(2) The block B moves down the plane
(3) Both the blocks remains at rest
(4) Both the blocks moves down the plane

41) Two particles of mass ‘m’ each are tied at the ends of a light string of length 2a. The whole
system is kept on a frictionless horizontal surface with the string held tight so that each mass is at a
distance ‘a’ from the centre P (as shown in the figure). Now, the mid-point of the string is pulled
vertically upwards with a small but constant force F. As a result, the particles move towards each
other on the surface. The magnitude of acceleration, when the separation between them becomes
2x, is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) The magnitude of the force(in newtons) acting on a body varies with time t(in microseconds) as
shown in the figure. AB, BC and CD are straight line segments. The magnitude of the total impulse
of the force on the body from t = 4 µs to t = 16µs is

(1) .005 Ns
(2) .004 Ns
(3) .003 Ns
(4) None of these

43) An interstellar spacecraft, far from the influence of any stars or planets, is moving with an
acceleration under the influence of fusion rockets when the rocket engines malfunction and stop.
The spacecraft has a high speed at that time. It will :-

(1) immediately stop

(2) begin slowing down, eventually coming to a rest.
(3) keep moving at constant speed for a while, but then begin to slow down.
(4) keep moving forever at the same speed.

44) At the instant when the 15kg mass has acceleration of 6 m/s2, then acceleration of 30 kg mass

will be -

(1) 2 m/s2
(2) 3 m/s2
(3) 4 m/s2
(4) 6 m/s2

45) Three blocks are connected as shown in fig., on a horizontal frictionless table and pulled to the
right with a force T3 = 60 N. If m1 = 10 kg. m2 = 20 kg. and m3 = 30 kg. the tension T2 is-

(1) 10 N
(2) 20 N
(3) 30 N
(4) 60 N

CHEMISTRY

1) Which of the following acid is most acidic ?

(1) HCl
(2) HF
(3) HI
(4) HBr

2) Which one of the following orders correctly represents the increasing acid strengths of the given
acids :

(1) HOClO3 < HOClO2 < HOClO < HOCl

(2) HOCl < HOClO < HOClO2 < HOClO3
(3) HOClO < HOCl < HOClO3 < HOClO2
(4) HOClO2 < HOClO3 < HOClO < HOCl

3) Excited state of chlorine in ClF3 is :-

(1) First
(2) Second
(3) Third
(4) None

4) Which of the following order is correct -

(1) Basic character : Li2O > Na2O > K2O > Cs2O
(2) Acidic character : Al2O3 < SiO2 < P2O5 < Cl2O7
(3) Acidic strength : HF > HCl > HBr > HI
(4) Acidic character : N2O > NO2 > N2O5 > N2O3

5) Amphoteric oxide is ?

(1) CO2
(2) SnO2
(3) CaO
(4) SiO2

6) Consider the given elements /ion, Mg, Mg2+, Al, Al3+. Find species which has largest & smallest
radius respectively :-

(1) Al & Al3+

(2) Mg & Mg2+
(3) Mg & Al3+
(4) Al & Mg2+

7) Which of the following is metalloide :-

(1) Silicon
(2) Oxygen
(3) Carbon
(4) Sulphur

8) The outer most electronic configuration of d-block element is :-

(1) ns2 nd1–10

(2) (n–1) d1–10 ns0–2
(3) (n–2) d1–10 ns0–2
(4) (n–1) d1–10 ns2

9) Match the column :-

Column I Column II

Natural transuranic
(A) (P) Na, Mg
element

(B) d-block element (Q) Be, Al

Diagonally related
(C) (R) Fe, Co
elements

(D) Typical elements (S) Np, Pu

Code :-

A B C D
(1) R P S Q
(2) S R Q P
(3) S R P Q
(4) R S Q P
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

10) B is diagonally related with :-

(1) Mg
(2) Al
(3) Si
(4) Na

11) Which of the following pair of atomic number represents liquid metal and liquid non metal
respectively :-

(1) 80, 31
(2) 35, 31
(3) 80, 35
(4) 87, 31

12) Which of the following is CORRECT order :-

(1) → Basic strength

(2) HF < HCl < HBr < HI → Acidic strength
(3) NaOH < KOH < RbOH < CsOH→ Basic strength
(4) All of these

13) The order of increasing ionic radius of the following is :-

(1) K+ < Li+ < Br– < I–

(2) Br– < K+ < Li+ < I–
(3) I– < Br– < K+ < Li+
(4) Li+ < K+ < Br– < I–

14) Correct statements among the following is : –––

(1) 2nd electron gain enthalpy is always endothermic

(2) Electronegativity is the property of bonding atoms
(3) Al2O3 and BeO are amphoteric oxide
(4) All of these are correct

15) Which of the following order regarding electronegativity is correct :

(1) Mo (II) > Mo (III) > Mo (IV) > Mo (V) > Mo (VI)
(2) Cl (VII) > Cl (V) > Cl (I) > Cl (III)
(3) sp Carbon > sp2 Carbon > sp3 Carbon
(4) F > N > Cl > O

16) Which one of the following statements is incorrect in relation to ionization enthalpy ?

(1) Ionization enthalpy increases for each successive electron.

The greatest increase in ionization enthalpy is experienced on removal of electron from core
(2)
noble gas configuration.
(3) End of valence electrons is marked by a big jump in ionization enthalpy.
Removal of electron from orbitals bearing lower n value is easier than from orbital having
(4)
higher n value.

17) Paramagnetism is exhibited by :-

(1) N2O
(2) Cl2O
(3) ClO2
(4) Cl2O6

18) The cause of chemical combination is :-

(1) Tendency of acquire minimum energy

(2) Tendency to acquire noble gas configuration
(3) (1) & (2) both
(4) None of these

19) In which of the following species central atom is NOT surrounded by exactly 8 valence
electrons?

–
(1) BF4
(2) NCl3
+
(3) PCl4
(4) SF4

20) Which amongst the following is not isoelectronic :-

(1) NO
(2) CN–1
(3) N2
(4)

21) The hybridization of O in H3O+ is:

(1) sp
(2) sp2
(3) sp3d
(4) sp3

22) Which of the following are isoelectronic and isostructural?

NO3–, CO32–, ClO3–, SO3, NO2–

– 2–
(1) NO3 , CO3
–
(2) SO3, NO2
– 2–
(3) ClO3 , CO3
–
(4) SO3, ClO3

23) Which of the following is an examples of super octet molecule (expansion of octet) ?

(1) ClF3
(2) PCl5
(3) IF7
(4) All the three
24) Which of the following compounds do not exist:-

(1) PH5
–2
(2) SiF6
–2
(3) CF6
(4) Both (1) and (3)

25) Which set not contains isoelectronic species :-

–3 –2 –1
(1) BO3 , CO3 , NO3
–2 –2 –1
(2) SO3 , CO3 , NO3
– –2
(3) CN , N2, C2
–3 –2 –1
(4) PO4 , SO4 , ClO4

26) In the following electron dot structure, correct calculation of the formal charge from left to right
nitrogen atom is

(1) –1, –1, +1

(2) –1, +1, –1
(3) +1, –1, –1
(4) +1, –1, +1

27) Unpaired electron is present in :-

(1) and CaO2

(2) KO2 and Na2O2
(3) KO2 only
(4) CaO2 only

28)

In which of the following formal charge on oxygen atom is equal to – :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

29) Choose the molecules in which hybridisation occurs in the ground state ?
(i) BCl3 (ii) NH3
(iii) PCl3 (iv) BeF2
The correct answer is -

(1) i, ii, iv
(2) i, ii, iii
(3) ii, iii
(4) iii, iv

30) Which of the following pair of compounds are isostructural ?

(1) CO2 and SO2

(2) SiF4 and SF4
XeF2 and
(3)

(4) SF6 and XeF6

31)

Match column-I with column–II and select the correct answer :-

Column-I Column-I
(Molecules) (Property)

(P) IF7 (1) Planar and Polar

(Q) SO2 (2) Non planar and polar

(R) SF4 (3) Planar and Nonpolar

(S) CS2 (4) Non polar and non planar

(P) (Q) (R) (S)
(1) 4 1 2 3
(2) 4 2 1 3
(3) 3 1 2 4
(4) 3 1 4 2
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

32) The shape of a molecule which has EB5L2 moleculer formula :- {E = Central atom, B = Terminal
atom, L = Loan pair}

(1) Square pyramidal

(2) Pentagonal planar
(3) Octahedral
(4) Pentagonal bipyramidal

33) Which of the following compound does not form pπ – pπ bond.

(1) SO3
–
(2) NO3
 –2
(3) SO4
–2
(4) CO3

34)

The hybridisation of N atom in NO3–, NO2+, and NH4+ are respectively.

(1) sp, sp2, sp3

(2) sp2, sp, sp3
(3) sp3, sp, sp2
(4) sp2, sp3, sp

35) Which of the following order is not in accordance with property given ?

(1) F2 < Cl2 < Br2 < I2 → Bond dissociation energy

(2) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 → Oxidising power
(3) HF < HCl < HBr < HI → Acidic strength in aq. solution
(4) CH4 < NH3 < H2O < HF → Acidic strength in aq. solution

36) In the process N2 → N2+ and O2 → O2+

(1) Both N-N and O-O bond get weakens

(2) N2 becomes diamagnetic
(3) bond order of O2 decreases
+
(4) In O2 → O2 paramagnetism decreases

37) In which of the following process hybridisation of central atom is changed :-

+ +
(1) H2O + H → H3O
+ +
(2) NH3 + H → NH4
– –
(3) BF3 + F → BF4
(4) 2NO2 → N2O4

38) In which of the following pairs of molecules/ions, both the species are not likely to exist ?

– 2+
(1) H2 , He2
+ 2–
(2) H2 , He2
– 2–
(3) H2 , He2
2–
(4) H2 , He2

39) Which of the following structures is the most referred and hence of lowest energy for SO3 ?
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) Assertion:- 2nd period elements do not involve in excitation of electron.

Reason:- 2nd period elements have vacant 2d-orbitals.

(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are False.

41) Among LiCl, BeCl2, BCl3 and CCl4, the covalent character follows the order :

(1) LiCl < BeCl2 > BCl3 > CCl4

(2) LiCl > BeCl2 < BCl3 < CCl4
(3) LiCl < BeCl2 < BCl3 < CCl4
(4) LiCl > BeCl2 > BCl3 > CCl4

42) The correct bond order in the following species is :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

43) Which compound posseses the greatest lattice energy?

(1) LiBr
(2) LiCl
(3) LiI
(4) LiF

44) The correct order of decreasing polarisable ions is :

(1) Cl– > Br– > I– > F–

(2) F– > I– > Br– > Cl–
(3) F– > Cl– > Br– > I–
(4) I– > Br– > Cl– > F–

45) Correct order of covalent character of alkaline earth metal chloride in :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

BIOLOGY

1) Match List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II

Centromere situated close to the end

(a) Metacentric chromosome (i) forming one extremely short and one very
long arms

(b) Acrocentric chromosome (ii) Centromere at the terminal end

Centromere in the middle forming two

(c) Sub- metacentric (iii)
equal arms of chromosomes

Centromere slightly away from the middle

(d) Telocentric chromosome (iv) forming one shorter arm and one longer
arm
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (a)-(i),(b)-(iii),(c)-(ii),(d)-(iv)
(2) (a)-(ii),(b)-(iii),(c)-(iv),(d)-(i)
(3) (a)-(i),(b)-(ii),(c)-(iii),(d)-(iv)
(4) (a)-(iii),(b)-(i),(c)-(iv),(d)-(ii)

2) If the pH in lysosomes is increased to alkaline, what will be the outcome ?

(1) Hydrolytic enzymes will function more efficiently.

(2) Hydrolytic enzymes will become inactive.
(3) Lysosomal enzymes will be released into the cytoplasm.
(4) Lysosomal enzymes will be more active.

3) Read the following statements

Statement A: The nuclear matrix or the nucleoplasm contains nucleolus and chromatin.
Statement B: Larger and more numerous nucleoli are present in the cells actively carrying out
protein synthesis.
Select the correct option.

(1) Both statements A and B are incorrect

(2) Both statements A and B are correct
(3) Only statement A is correct
(4) Only statement B is correct

4) Inclusion bodies of blue- green, purple and green photosynthetic bacteria are :

(1) Contractile vacuoles

(2) Gas vacuoles
(3) Centrioles
(4) Microtubules

5) Which is the important site of formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids in eukaryotic cells ?

(1) Polysomes
(2) Endoplasmic reticulum
(3) Peroxisomes
(4) Golgi bodies

6) Which of the following nucleic acids is present in an organism having 70S ribosomes only ?

(1) Single stranded DNA with protein coat

(2) Double stranded circular naked DNA
(3) Double stranded DNA enclosed in nuclear membrane
(4) Double stranded circular DNA with histone proteins

7) Choose the correct from following :-

(1) Mangifera, is a name of Species

(2) Polymoniales, is a name of Family
(3) Dicotyledonae, is a name of Division
(4) Triticum, is a name of Genus

8) Which of the following statements best describes the chemical composition of plasma membrane ?

Plasma membrane is composed of two layers one layer of phospholipids and one layer of
(1)
proteins
(2) Plasma membrane is composed of equal numbers of phospholipids, proteins and carbohydrates
(3) Plasma membrane is bilayers of proteins with associated lipids and carbohydrate
(4) Plasma membrane is bilayers of phospholipids with associated proteins and carbohydrates

9)
Structure A is a :-

(1) Pinocytosis
(2) Phagocytosis
(3) Pinosome
(4) Phagosome

10) The isolated lyosomal vesicles have been found to be very rich in almost all type of hydrolytic
enzymes optimally active at the:-

(1) pH = 7
(2) pH = 10
(3) pH = 5
(4) pH = 1

11) Which of the following is a function of centriole ?

(1) Form the basal body of Cilia

(2) Maintenance of continuity of cytoplasm of plant cell
(3) Form spindle fibres during cell division in higher plant cells
(4) Protein synthesis

12) Phospholipid molecule arranged in bilayer form in cell membrane because of :

(1) It has quasifluid nature

(2) It has amphipathic nature
(3) It has saturated fatty acid
(4) It provide fluid character

13)

In the following diagram the labelled part of D contains which of the following:-

(i) A few RNA molecules

(ii) 70s ribosome
(iii) Enzymes
(iv) Circular DNA
(1) ii, iv
(2) i, ii, iv
(3) ii, iii, iv
(4) i, ii, iii, iv

14) Identify A, B, C, D.

(1) Leucoplast, Chloroplasts, Aleuroplast, Elaioplast

(2) Chloroplasts, Leucoplast, Aleuroplast, Elaioplast
(3) Chloroplast, Leucoplast, Elaloplast, Aleuroplast
(4) Leucoplast, Chloroplast, Elaioplast, Aleuroplast

15)

The non–sticky chromosomal ends are known as–

(1) Chromatids
(2) Centromeres
(3) Satellites
(4) Telomeres

16) Which of the following layers of cell wall, is found closest to the plasma membrane in
meristematic cells ?

(1) Middle lamella

(2) Tertiary wall
(3) Primary wall
(4) Secondary wall

17) Cell wall of algae is composed of:

(1) Cellulose, hemicellulose, pectin and protein

(2) Cellulose, hemicellulose and mannans only
(3) Cellulose, galactans, mannans and minerals
(4) Cellulose, pectin and minerals only

18) Chromatophores are found in

(1) Streptococcus pneumoniae
(2) Trichoderma
(3) E. coli
(4) Cyanobacteria

19) Ribosomes are made up of

(1) DNA and protein

(2) DNA and lipid
(3) RNA and protein
(4) RNA and DNA

20) Match the entities in Column I with their character in Column II:

Column I Column II

Connect the cytoplasm of

(A) Passive transport (i)
neighbouring cells

Diffusion along the concentration

(B) Active transport (ii)
gradient

(C) Plasmodesmata (iii) Na+/K+ pump

(D) Osmosis (iv) Carrier

Facilitated Movement of water along the

(E) (v)
diffusion gradient
(1) A – (ii), B – (iii), C – (i), D – (iv), E – (v)
(2) A – (v), B – (i), C – (iv), D – (ii), E – (iii)
(3) A – (i), B – (iii), C – (v), D – (ii), E – (iv)
(4) A – (ii), B – (iii), C – (i), D – (v), E – (iv)

21) (A) A specialised differentiated form of cell membrane called mesosome is the characteristic of
prokaryotes.
(B) Pilli are small bristle like fibres sprouting out of the cell
(C) In cyanobacteria, chromatophores are present.
(D) In both prokaryotes and eukaryotic cells, a semi fluid matrix called cytoplasm occupies the
volume of the cell.
(E) Membrane bound minute vesicles called microbodies that contain various enzyme.
Read the given statements and choose the correct option?

(1) A, B, C & D are correct

(2) Only B is Incorrect
(3) All statements are correct
(4) Only B is correct

22) Select the incorrect statement with reference to mitosis:

(1) Spindle fibres attach to secondary constriction of chromosomes.

(2) Chromosomes decondense at telophase.
(3) Splitting of centromere occurs at anaphase.
(4) All the chromosomes lie at the equator at metaphase.

23) Regarding Meiosis, which of the statements is incorrect ?

(1) DNA replication occurs in S phase of Meiosis-II

(2) Pairing of homologous chromosomes and recombination occurs in Meiosis-I
(3) Four haploid cells are formed at the end of Meiosis-II
(4) There are two stages in Meiosis, Meiosis-I and II

24) In meiosis, crossing over and exchange of genetic material between homologous chromosomes
are catalyzed by the enzyme.

(1) Phosphorylase
(2) Recombinase
(3) Transferase
(4) Polymerase

25) Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : The beginning of diplotene is recognised by the dissolution of the synaptonemal
complex and appearance of X shaped structures called chiasmata.
Reason (R) : In oocytes of some vertebrates, diplotene can last for months or years.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) not the correct explanation of (A)
(4) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

26) Match List -I with List - II.

List -I List -II

(a) S phase (i) Proteins are synthesized

(b) G2 phase (ii) Go phase

Quiescent Interval between mitosis and

(c) (iii)
stage initiation of DNA replication

(d) G1 phase (iv) DNA replication

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

(2) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)

 (3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

(4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

27) Which stage of meiotic prophase shows terminalisation of chiasmata as its distinctive feature ?

(1) Leptotene
(2) Zygotene
(3) Diakinesis
(4) Pachytene

28) Some dividing cells exit the cell cycle and enter the (G0) stage. This process occur at the end of :

(1) G2 phase
(2) M phase
(3) G1 phase
(4) S phase

29) The stage during which terminalization begins :

(1) Pachytene
(2) Diplotene
(3) Diakinesis
(4) Zygotene

30) Study the given diagram and mark the correct option :-

(1) F : Cell in this stage remain metabolically active but no longer proliferate
(2) A : DNA replicates in nucleus and centriole duplicates in the cytoplasm
(3) D : Constitutes more than 95% duration of cell cycle
(4) C : Interval between mitosis and initiation of DNA replication

31) If a cell in G1 phase has 20 chromosome and 20 Pg DNA in nucleus then which one option is
correct for chromosomes and DNA in cell in given diagrams (A-D) :-

(1) A-20, 20 ; B-20, 40 ; C-20, 40 ; D-20, 20 respectively

(2) A-20, 40 ; B-20, 40 ; C-20, 40 ; D-10, 20 respectively
(3) A-20, 40 ; B-20, 40 ; C-20, 20 ; D-10, 20 respectively
(4) A-20, 20 ; B-20, 40 ; C-20, 20 ; D-10, 20 respectively

32) Which of the following is wrong about S phase?

(1) Replication of DNA

(2) Increase in the chromosome number
(3) Gap between G1 & G2
(4) Centriole duplication

33) Match the stages of meiosis of Column-I to their characteristic features in Column-II and select
the correct option using the codes given below

Column-I Column-II

i. Pairing of homologous
a. Pachytene
chromosomes

ii. Terminalization of
b. Metaphase I
chiasmata

c. Diakinesis iii. Crossing-over takes place

iv. Chromosomes align at

d. Zygotene
equatorial plate
(1) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
(2) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii)
(3) a(ii),b(iv),c(iii),d(i)
(4) a(iv),b(iii),c(ii),d(i)

34) The interphase nucleus does not contains :-

(1) Highly extended nucleoprotein fibres

(2) Nucleoplasm
(3) Nucleoli
(4) Highly condensed nucleoprotein fibres
35)

Choose the incorrect statement :-

(A) Cells in G0 stage are metabolically inactive.
(B) Meiosis involves two cycle of DNA replication
(C) Mitosis restores the nucleo–cytoplasmic ratio of cells
(D) Duration of cell cycle may vary from organism to organism and also from cell to cell.

Options :-
(1) A,C
(2) C,D
(3) B,C
(4) A,B

36) No. of chromosome and content of DNA in S phase is n and 2C than calculate no. of chromosome
and content of DNA in G1 and G2

(1) n, C, n, 2C
(2) 2n 2C, n, 2C
(3) n 2C, n, 2C
(4) All of the above

37) The figures below show 3 phases of mitosis select the option giving correct identification

together with the correct event ?

(1) C-Telophase-nuclear envelope assembles around the chromosome clusters

(2) B-Anaphase-segregation of homologous chromosome
(3) A-Prophase-chromosomes get fully condensed
(4) C-Metaphase-condensation of chromatin to form chromosome

38) I. Cells like heart cells and nerve cells, which are also called non-dividing cells are in ....A....
phase.
[Link] S-phase in animal cells, DNA replication takes place in the ......B..... and duplication of
centriole takes place in the .....C.... .
Fill in the blanks with appropriate option.

(1) A–G0, B–nucleus, C–cytoplasm

(2) A–S, B–cytoplasm, C–nucleus
(3) A–G1, B–nucleus, C–cytoplasm
(4) A–G0, B–cytoplasm, C–nucleus

39) Go through the following events -

I. Terminalization of chiasmata occurs
II. Chromosomes are fully condensed
III. Meiotic spindle is assembled
IV. By the end nuclear membrane and nucleolus disappear
The above points indicate that it is -

(1) Zygotene stage

(2) Diakinesis stage
(3) Metaphase II
(4) Pachytene

40) Best material for the study of mitosis in laboratory :-

(1) Anther
(2) Root tip
(3) Leaf tip
(4) Ovary

41) Which of the following represents the correct sequence of events during mitosis?

Condensation → Disintegration of nuclear envelope → arrangement of chromosomes at equator

(1) → separation of sister chromatids → splitting of centromere → nuclear envelope develop around
the chromosome
Condensation → Nuclear envelope develops around the chromosome → arrangement of
(2) chromosomes at equator → splitting of centromere → Separation of sister chromatids →
Disintegration of nuclear envelope
Condensation → Nuclear envelope develops around the chromosome → arrangement of
(3) chromosomes at equator → separation of sister chromatids → splitting of centromere →
disintegration of nuclear envelope
Condensation → Disintegration of nuclear envelope → arrangement of chromosomes at equator
(4) → splitting of centromere → separation of sister chromatids → nuclear envelope develop around
the chromosome

42) Statement-I: Like mitosis, meiosis involves 2 rounds of nuclear division and one cycle of DNA
replication
Statement-II: Meiosis involves pairing of homologous chromosomes and recombination between
sister chromatids of homologus chromosomes

(1) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

(2) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct
(4) Both statement I and statement II are correct

43) Of the total duration of a cell cycle, interphase lasts for

(1) About 5%
(2) Less than 50%
(3) More than 95%
(4) About 75%

44) What is continuously occurring in the cell during G1, S and G2 phase ?

(1) DNA replication

(2) DNA duplication
(3) Centriole duplication
(4) Growth of cell

45) The basic unit of classifi cation is

(1) species
(2) genus
(3) family
(4) phylum

46) In mammal, voice is produced by :-

(1) Bronchus
(2) Syrinx
(3) Larynx
(4) Inhalation and exhalation

47) Binding of haemoglobin with carbon monoxide leads to formation of :-

(1) Oxy haemoglobin

(2) Methemoglobin
(3) Carboxy haemoglobin
(4) Carbamino haemoglobin

48) The blood leaving the lungs has its haemoglobin oxygenated and unloads its oxygen to the
tissues, because

(1) The tissues can absorb O2 from oxyhaemoglobin

(2) O2 concentration in tissues is lower and CO2 concentration higher than that of lungs
(3) O2 concentration in tissues is higher and CO2 concentration lower than that of lungs
(4) Oxyhaemoglobin undergoes reduction

49) Neither the trachea nor the bronchi contain

(1) hyaline cartilage

(2) goblet cells
(3) ciliated columnar epithelium
(4) simple squamous epithelium

50) After the normal expiration, how much amount of air remains in our lungs :-
(1) 2300 ml
(2) 4600 ml
(3) 1200 ml
(4) 1600 ml

51) Factor not responsible for right shift of oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve :-

(1) High CO2

(2) High pH
(3) High acidity
(4) High H+

52) Residual volume remains in lungs alveoli because of :-

(1) Negative intrapulmonary volume

(2) Negative intra pleural pressure
(3) Positive intra pleural pressure
(4) Negative atomspheric pressure

53) During unloading of CO2 .....................

(1) Cl– moves from plasma to RBCs

–
(2) HCO3 moves from RBCs to plasma
(3) Cl– moves from RBCs to plasma
–
(4) HCO3 move from plasma to alveoli

54) Every 100 ml of deoxygenated blood delivers approximately ____________ :-

(1) 5 ml of CO to the alveoli

(2) 6 ml of CO2 to the plasma
(3) 4 ml of CO2 to the alveoli
(4) 7 ml of CO to the plasma

55) Bohr Effect is :-

(1) Dissociation of oxyhaemoglobin due to high CO2 concentration in Alveoli

(2) Dissociation of carbon dioxide containing compounds in alveoli due to high O2 concentration
(3) Dissociation of oxyhaemoglobin due to high CO2 concentration in tissues
(4) Dissociation of carboxy hemoglobin due to high CO2 concentration in tissues.

56)

Negative pressure inside lungs is created due to:-

(1) The contraction of muscles of diaphragm & relaxation of external intercostal muscles
(2) The relaxation of muscles of diaphragm & contraction of external intercostal muscles
(3) The contraction of muscles of diaphragm & contraction of external intercostal muscles
(4) The relaxation of muscles of diaphragm & relaxation of external intercostal muscles

57) Mark the ascending order of lung volumes :

(1) TV < ERV < RV < IRV

(2) TV < RV < ERV < IRV
(3) IRV < RV < TV < ERV
(4) ERV < TV < RV < IRV

58) Refer the given figure and answer the question :-

Which of the following statement is correct regarding the above figure ?

When percentage saturation of haemoglobin is plotted against the partial pressure of oxygen, a
(1)
sigmoid curve is obtained.
(2) Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin is primarily related to partial pressure of carbon monoxide.
(3) The given graph illustrates the amount of HbO2 as similar to Hb at different pO2.
(4) All of the above

59) Humans have to maintain the moderate respiratory rhythms to suit the demands of the body. For
fulfilling that purpose, we have the Respiratory rhythm centre in medulla = R
Pneumotaxic centre in pons = PT
Chemosensitive area in medulla = C1
Peripheral chemoreceptors in aortic arch and carotid artery = C2
Select the correct path for the regulation of respiration.

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4) C2→R→PT→C1

60)

Which enzyme is present in RBCs to catalyse the given reactions ?

CO2 + H2O H2CO3 H+ + HCO3–

(1) Catalase
(2) Peroxidase
(3) Carboxypeptidase
(4) Carbonic anhydrase

61)

Find out the correct match from following table with regards to larynx

Column I Column II Column II

(i) Thyroid cartilage Number = 1 Incomplete ring like or C-shaped

(ii) Cricoid cartilage Number = 2 Signet ring like

(iii) Cartilage of santorini Number = 2 Piller like, conical in shape

(iv) Arytinoid cartilage Number = 2 Spherical in shape

(1) Only (i)

(2) (i) and (iv)
(3) (iii) only
(4) (ii) and (iii)

62)

Match the column I with column II

COLUMN I COLUMN II

A Tracheal tubes I Arachnida

B Gills II Frog

C Moist skin III Cockroach

D Book lungs IV Fishes

A B C D
(1) III IV II I
(2) III I IV II
(3) IV III II I
(4) IV II I III
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

63) Find the total number of correct and incorect matches :-

a HbO2 dissociation curve Sigmoid shape

b Carbamino haemoglobin 70%

c Pneumotaxic center Medulla oblongata

d Fish 2-chambered heat

e RBC in human Non Nucleated

Correct Incorrect

(1) Three a, b, c Two d, e

(2) Two a, b Three c, d, e

(3) Four a, b, c, e One d

(4) Three a, d, e Two b, c

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

64) The following diagram is human respiratory system with the parts labelled from a to d. Identify

the parts and choose the correct option :-

(1) a-Bronchiole, b-Alveoli, c-Pleural membranes, d-Bronchus

(2) a-Pleural membranes, b-Alveoli, c-Bronchiole, d-Bronchus
(3) a-Lung, b-Alveoli, c-Bronchiole, d-Bronchus
(4) a-Alveoli, b-Pleural membranes, c-Lung, d-Bronchus

65)

Partial pressure (in mm Hg) of Oxygen and Carbon dioxide at Different parts Involved in Diffusion is
given in table then identify the A, B, C and D :-
 Respiratory Gases O2 CO2

Atmospheric Air 159 0.3

A 104 40

Blood (Deoxygenated) 40 B

Blood (Oxygenated) C 40

Tissues 40 D
(1) A - Pulmonary artery, B-45, C-95, D-45
(2) A - Pulmonary vein, B-45, C-104, D-40
(3) A - Alveoli, B-45, C-95, D-45
(4) A - Alveoli, B-40, C-104, D-45

66) Which of the following is correct representation of waves in ECG ?

(1) P – depolarisation of atria

(2) T – end of diastole
(3) S – Start of systole
(4) S – end of systole

67) Coronary heart disease is due to :

(1) Streptococci bacteria

(2) Inflammation of pericardium
(3) Weakening of the heart valves
(4) Insufficient blood supply to the heart muscles

68)

Identify the correct match from the columns I, II and III :-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

69)

Which of the following statements is correct with respect to blood plasma :-

(a) Proteins contribute 6-8 percent.
(b) Plasma without clotting factors is called serum
(c) Albumins is the only major proteins.
(d) Glucose, amino acids, lipids present are always in transit in the body.
Options are :-

(1) a, b, c, d
(2) only a, b, c
(3) only a, b, d
(4) only b, c, d

70)

The Rh antibodies from the mother can leak into the blood of fetus and destroy the foetal RBCs. This
condition is called :-

(1) Erythroblastosis foetalis

(2) Anemia
(3) Erythropenia
(4) Leukemia

71)

Haemoglobin is red colour respiratory pigment containing :

(1) Fe++
(2) Na+
(3) Cu++
(4) Fe+++

72)

How many statements are correct for RBC ?

(i) Biconcave, circular and non-nucleated in human
(ii) It contain 95% Haem part
(iii) It contain antigen of blood gp. on suface
(iv) It contain stromatin and mitochondria

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 1
(4) 4

73) Pulmonary veins carry :-

(1) Deoxygenated blood from lungs to heart

(2) Oxygenated blood from lungs to heart
(3) Oxygenated blood from heart to lungs
(4) Deoxygenated blood from heart to lungs

74) Statement-I : The T-wave represents the return of the ventricles from excited to normal state.
Statement-II : The end of the T-wave marks the end of systole.

(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II are incorrect.

75) The second most abundant type of leucocyte is:

(1) Eosinophils
(2) Monocytes
(3) Basophils
(4) Lymphocytes

76) Which enzyme is responsible for the conversion of inactive fibrinogens to fibrins?

(1) Thrombin
(2) Renin
(3) Epinephrine
(4) Thrombokinase

77) Serum is :-

(1) Blood - Blood cells

(2) Plasma - Fibrinogen
(3) Blood - Plasma
(4) Blood - RBC

78) Atherosclerosis is called

(1) coronary artery disease (CAD)

(2) angina
(3) heart failure
(4) hypertension

79) How many statements are correct about regulation of cardiac activity.
(i) A special neural centre in the medulla oblongata can moderate the cardiac function
(ii) Parasympathetic neural signal decrease the rate of heart beat and increase stroke volume,
cardiac output.
(iii) Adrenal medullary hormones can also increase the cardiac output.
(iv) Sympathetic nerves can increase the strength of ventricular contraction and thereby the cardiac
output.

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) One

80) Match the columns I and II and choose the correct combination from the options given :-

Column I Column II

a Superior Vena Cava p Carries deoxygenated blood to lungs

b Inferior Vena Cava q Carries oxygenated blood from lungs

c Pulmonary Artery r Brings deoxygenated blood from lower parts of body to right atrium

d Pulmonary Vein s Brings deoxygenated blood from upper parts of body into right atrium
(1) a–q, b–s, c–r, d–p
(2) a–s, b–p, c–q, d–r
(3) a–s, b–r, c–p, d–q
(4) a–s, b–p, c–r, d–q

81) Identify the type of WBC shown below as well as find out its normal count and their special
property/function and select the correct option for the two together?

(1) Neutrophils :- No. = 60-65% and function = phagocytosis

(2) Basophils :- No. = 2-3% function :- secrete histamine serotonin and heperin
(3) Eosinophils :- No. = 2-3% function :- protection against infection
(4) Monocyte No- 6-8%, function = phagocytosis

82) Identify A and B:-

(1) A = Thrombokinase, B = Thrombin

(2) A = Thrombin, B = Thrombokinase
(3) A and B = Thrombin
(4) A = Thrombin, B = Prothrombinase

83) Match the column I and II, and choose the correct combination from the options given.
 Column-I Column-II
1. Involved in inflammatory
a. Eosinophils
reactions
b. Basophil 2. Allergic reactions
3. Resonsible for immune
c. Neutrophils
response
d. Lymphocytes 4. Phagocytic cells
e. Monocytes 5. Gas transport
(1) a-4, b-5, c-1, d-2, e-3
(2) a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3, e-5
(3) a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4, e-3
(4) a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3, e-4

84) Cardiac output is determinded by–

(1) Heart rate

(2) Stroke volume
(3) Blood flow
(4) Both (1) and (2)

85) A special system of blood vessels is present in our body exclusively for the circulation of blood to
and from the cardiac musculature :

(1) Carotid system

(2) Systemic circulation
(3) Coronary circulation
(4) Pulmonary circulation

86) Select the answer with correct match.

Column-I Column-II Column-III

(1) SA Node Right atrium Pacemaker

(2) AV Node Left Ventricle Slowest conduction

(3) Vena cava Oxygenated blood Pump to left artia

(4) Aorta deoxygenated blood Pump to lungs

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

87) In order for the blood to flow from right ventricle to left ventricle in mammalian heart, it must
flow through:

(1) Right ventricle → pulmonary arteries → lungs → pulmonary veins → left atrium
(2) Right ventricle → pulmonary veins → lungs → pulmonary arteries → left atrium
(3) Right ventricle → right atrium → lungs → pulmonary veins → left atrium
(4) Right ventricle → systemic aorta → lungs → pulmonary veins → left atrium

88) Assertion : Left ventricle of heart has a thinner wall than that of the right ventricle
Reason : Left ventricle needs to pump blood to nearby lungs only

(1) Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
(2) Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(4) Assertion and Reason are false statements

89) Match the Column-I and Column-II correctly.

Column-I Column-II

a. cardiac cycle (i) 0.8 sec

b. cardiac output (ii) 70 ml

c. stroke volume (iii) 5000 ml

d. Heart beat (iv) 72 min–1

Choose the correct answer about above given -
(1) a–(i),b–(ii),c–(iii),d–(iv)
(2) a–(i),b–(iii),c–(ii),d–(iv)
(3) a–(i),b–(iii),c–(iv),d–(ii)
(4) a–(iii),b–(ii),c–(i),d–(ii)

90) Assertion : Human heart is Neurogenic.

Reason : The nodal musculature has the ability to generate action potentials without any external
stimuli.

(1) Assertion and reason both are wrong.

(2) Assertion is wrong but reason is true.
(3) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(4) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 2 2 4 3 4 4 1 4 1 4 1 2 1 1 2 2 3 4 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 4 4 4 3 2 3 3 1 3 3 2 3 3 3 3 2 4 2 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 1 4 3 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 2 1 2 2 3 1 2 2 3 3 4 4 4 3 4 3 3 4 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 1 4 4 2 2 3 3 3 3 1 2 3 2 1 4 3 4 1 4
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 3 4 4 3

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 2 2 2 4 2 4 4 3 3 1 2 4 1 4 3 3 4 3 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 1 1 2 3 3 3 3 2 1 2 2 1 4 4 1 1 1 2 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 1 3 4 1 3 3 2 4 1 2 2 3 3 3 3 1 1 3 4
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 1 4 2 3 1 4 4 1 1 1 2 2 1 4 1 2 1 2 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 1 4 4 3 1 1 4 2 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Instantaneous velocity = = slope of s–t curve.

2) The height h is covered in time interval t = 1 s to t = 2s or t = 5s to t = 6s.

At maximum height t = 3.5 sec.
h between t5 & t6 is

= = 15 m

3)

S = 3t3 + 7t2 + 14t + 3

V = 9t2 + 14 t + 14
a = 18 t + 14 ⇒ at=1 = 18 +14 = 32 m/s2

4)

5)

6)

7)

x = αt3 and y = βt3

8)

a=V
= βx–2n βx–2n
= β2x–2n (–2nx–2n–1)
= –2nβ2 x–4n–1

9)

Slope = Velocity till t0.

After t0 slope is zero.

10)

Slope for v – t = acceleration which is –ve constant.

11) While rising velocity is +VE and decreases while falling it is –VE and decreases.

12)

13) When a projectile is projected at an angle θ or at an angle (90º – θ) with the horizontal, the
horizontal range remains the same. The horizontal range is maximum when the angle of
projection is 45º.

14) Let the width of the river be L. If the man swims in a direction making an angle with the
bank with a velocity V sin θ, then the component of the velocity which helps him to cross the
river is Hence, the time T taken to cross the river is given by :

15) ∵ x = t2 - 4t + 4
v = 2t - 4 = 0
 t = 2sec

16) Time taken by coin to reach the floor is given by:

h = 1/2gt2

or

In stationary lift,
In upward moving lift with constant acceleration a,
g' = g + a

∴
Clearly, g' > g
Thus, t2 < t1 .

17) a = 2V2

V = V0e2x

18) (1) m1 (2) m2

↓ ↓
a1 = g a2 = g

acm =
acm = g

19)
20)

21) (by Lami's theorem)

22) Question Explanation:

To analyze why cut diamond stlines brilliantly

Concept:
This concept based on Total internal reflection

Solution:
Diamond has very high refractive index value that is critical angle is very small. therefore light
entered inside the diamond will have TIR.

Hence,
Correct option: (4)

23)

120 – F1 = 1 × 4
120 – 10 = F1
F1 = 110 N

24) Asking about : coefficient of friction to stop.

Concept : F = ma

Solution/Explanation/Calculation :
V = u + at

O = 10 + a(2) ⇒
this retardation is above to friction force
f = uN = ma
= u × mg = ma

Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

25)
N = F sinθ + mg cosθ

26)

fsmax = μsN = 0.8 (12) = 9.8N

Fext = 5N < fsmax
so f = 5N
FNet =

27)

For upper block,

Fmax = 0.5 (6g)

Fmax = 30 N

If the two blocks moves together then a =

a = 4m/s2
F = 6a = 6 × 4 = 24 N
as F < Fmax thus both the blocks moves together with acceleration a = 4m/s2

28)
2mg – T = 2ma ...... (i)
T – mg sin 30° = ma ....... (ii)

On adding eqns. (i) and (ii), we get or

29) For A :- 3T = 12 g ⇒ T = 4g

For B :- ⇒
∴ mB = 2 kg

30) F = 600 – 2 × 105 t = 0 ⇒ t = 3 × 10–3 sec

Impulse I =
 = = 0.9 N × sec

31)

m/s2

32) ⇒

33)
T(1) + T(7) + T(2) – T(a) = 0
a = 10 m/s2 downwards

34) Vertical displacement is same in both cases so both will reach simultaneously if both are
released together.

35)

the spring balance present in the lift is 24 kg

36)

= 7 m/sec.

37) The friction force on the block will prevent the block from falling it.

From figure :-
N = ma and
F = mg ⇒ µN = mg ⇒ µma = mg ⇒ a = g/µ

38)
T3 = 4g = 40 N

39) For A : T – 2g = 2a (i)

For B : T1 + 2g – T = 2a (ii)
For C : 2g – T1 = 2a (iii)
Adding equations (i) and (ii), we get
T1 = 4a (iv)

From equation (iii) and (iv), we get

2g – 4a = 2a
or a = g/3
From equations (iv) and (v), we get

T1 = 4 × = 13N

40)

41)
F = 2 Tcosθ

T=
 acceleration =

42) Impulse = Area of F vs t graph

= + × 2 × 10–6 + × 10 × 10–6
= 10–3 + 4 × 10–3
= 5 × 10–3 = .005 N.s

43) No net force acceleration = 0, So, v = constant

44)

acceleration of 30 kg mass will be 4 m/s2

45) a = = 1 ms–2

⇒ T2 = (m1 + m2) a = (10 + 20) × 1 =30 N

CHEMISTRY

46)

Acidic strength order

HF < HCl < HBr < HI

47)

Explanation -

The question asks for the correct order of increasing acid strengths for the given series of
chlorine oxyacids.

Concept - oxy acids

Solutions -

The given acids are oxyacids of chlorine:

 A. HOCl : Oxidation state of Cl = +1

B. HOClO : Oxidation state of Cl = +3

C. HOClO2 : Oxidation state of Cl = +5

D. HOClO3 : Oxidation state of Cl = +7

Therefore, the increasing order of oxidation states of chlorine in these acids is +1 < +3 < +5
< +7. Following the trend, the increasing order of acid strength should be:

HOCl < HOClO < HOClO2 < HOClO3

Final Answer - Option (2)

48) Asking for: Excited state of chlorine in CIF3, is:-

Concept: Hybridization, valence bond theory, excited states, VSEPR theory.
Formula: N/A, but understanding the electronic configuration and hybridization.
Solution/Explanation:
1. CIF3, Structure: CIF3, has a T-shaped structure with three bond pairs and two lone pairs
around the central chlorine atom.
2. Valence Electrons of CI: The ground state electronic configuration of chlorine is [Ne] 3s2
3p5
3. Hybridization: To accommodate five electron domains (three bond pairs and two lone
pains), chlorine undergoes sp'd hybridization.
4. Excited State:
° Ground state: 3s2 3p5 (one unpaired electron)
° First excited state: 3s2 3p4 3d1 (three unpaired electrons)
° Second excited state: 3s1 3p4 3d2 (five unpaired electrons)
5. Sp3d Hybridization: To form three bonds with fluorine and accommodate two lone pairs.
chlorine needs five orbitals. This requires the first excited state, where one 3s electron and
one 3p electron are promoted to the 3d orbitals, resulting in five unpaired electrons.
Therefore, the chlorine atom in CIF, is in the first excited state.
Answer: (First)
Option: 1

49)

Acidic Nature ∝ O.S. of Non-Metal

50)

NCERT-XI, Part-I, Pg. # 91

51)
Mg, Mg2+, Al, Al3+
Mg > Mg2+, Al > Al3+ Neutral > cation of same element (size)
Largest Mg > Al
Mg+2 > Al+3 smallest

52)

Silicon

53) Question Explanation: To find out the general electronic configuration of d-block
elements
Concept : In d-block elements, the in cumbent e– enters into (n – 1) d subshell
Solution : the general electronic configuration of d-block element is :
1–10
(n –1)d ns0–2
where ;
n = ultimate shell
(n–1)= Penultimte shell.

Final Answer : option (2).

54) Explanation :- The question asks to match elements with their classifications: natural
transuranic, d-block, diagonally related, and typical elements, tasting table knowledge.
Concept- :-
• Natural transuranic elements (A) like Neptunium (Np) and Plutonium (Pu) match with (S).
• d-block elements (B) such as lron (Fe) and Cobalt (Co) correspond to (R).
• Diagonally related elements (C) like Beryllium (Be) and Aluminium (Al) match with (Q).
• Typical elements (D) such as sodium (Na) and Magnesium (Mg) correspond to (P).
• Therefore, the correct match is A-S, B-R, C-Q, D-P, which corresponds to option (2)
Answer Option (2)

55)

B is diagonally related with :-Si

56)

80, 35 pair of atomic number represents liquid metal and liquid non metal.

57) → Basic strength

HF < HCl < HBr < HI → Acidic strength
NaOH < KOH < RbOH < CsOH→ Basic strength
58)

Li+ < K+ < Br– < I–

59)

2nd electron gain enthalpy is always endothermic

Electronegativity is the property of bonding atoms
Al2O3 and BeO are amphoteric oxide

60)

sp Carbon > sp2 Carbon > sp3 Carbon

61)

Removal of electron from orbitals bearing lower n value is easier than from orbital having
higher n value.

62)

Paramagnetism is exhibited by :-ClO2

63) Explanation: The question asks what drives atoms to form chemical bonds.

Concept : (Drives atoms to form chemical bonds)

Atoms combine to lower their energy state, achieving greater stability.
They also strive for a noble gas electron configuration (full valence shell). Therefore, both
minimum energy and noble gas configuration drive chemical combinations.

Final Answer - Option (3)

64)

SF4 → S has 10 valence e–

65)
 NO is not isoelectronic.

66)

67)

Asking for:

Identify the pairs of molecules/ions that are both isoelectronic and isostructural.

Concept:

A. Isoelectronic: Having the same number of electrons.

B. Isostructural: Having the same shape or geometry.
C. VSEPR Theory: Used to predict molecular shapes.

Formula:

A. To determine the number of electrons, sum the valence electrons of each atom and adjust for
the charge.

Solution/Explanation:

Let's analyze each molecule/ion:

A. NO₃⁻ :

A. N: 5 valence electrons
B. O: 6 valence electrons (3 oxygen atoms = 18)
C. Negative charge: +1 electron
D. Total electrons: 5 + 18 + 1 = 24 electrons
E. Shape: Trigonal planar.
B. CO₃²⁻ :

A. C: 4 valence electrons
B. O: 6 valence electrons (3 oxygen atoms = 18)
C. Negative charge: +2 electrons
D. Total electrons: 4 + 18 + 2 = 24 electrons
E. Shape: Trigonal planar.
C. ClO₃⁻ :

A. Cl: 7 valence electrons

B. O: 6 valence electrons (3 oxygen atoms = 18)
C. Negative charge: +1 electron
D. Total electrons: 7 + 18 + 1 = 26 electrons
 E. Shape: Pyramidal.
D. SO₃ :

A. S: 6 valence electrons
B. O: 6 valence electrons (3 oxygen atoms = 18)
C. Total electrons: 6 + 18 = 24 electrons
D. Shape : Trigonal planar.
E. NO₂⁻ :

A. N: 5 valence electrons
B. O: 6 valence electrons (2 oxygen atoms = 12)
C. Negative charge: +1 electron
D. Total electrons : 5+12+1 = 18 electrons.
E. Shape: Bent.

Therefore, NO₃⁻ and CO₃²⁻ are isoelectronic and isostructural.

Answer : Option : 1

68) EXPLANATION:- super octet molecule is asked

Concept Used:

A. Super octet molecules are those in which the central atom has more than 8
electrons in its valence shell.

SOLUTION:-

1. ClF₃

A. Central atom: Cl (Chlorine)

B. Has 5 electron pairs around it (3 bonds + 2 lone pairs) = 10 electrons

Super octet

C. 2. PCl₅

D. Central atom: P (Phosphorus)

Forms 5 bonds with Cl → 10 electrons

Super octet

3. IF₇

A. Central atom: I (Iodine)

Forms 7 bonds with F → 14 electrons
Super octet

Final Answer: Option (4) All the three

69)

Explanation - The question asks which of the given chemical formulas (PH5, SiF6²⁻, CF6²⁻)
represent compounds that do not exist due to bonding limitations.
Concept - (Bonding Limitations)
The compounds that do not exist are PH5 and CF6²⁻. Therefore, the correct answer is option 4.

Here's why:

A. PH5 (Phosphorus Pentahydride):

A. PH5 : drago compound
B. Therefore, it cannot form six bonds.
B. SiF6²⁻ (Hexafluorosilicate):
A. Silicon is also in the third period and can expand its octet.
B. SiF6²⁻ is a known and stable compound.
C. CF6²⁻ (Hexafluorocarbon):
A. Carbon is in the second period and does not have available d-orbitals to expand its octet.
B. Therefore, it cannot form six bonds.

Therefore, PH5 and CF6²⁻ do not exist.

Final Answer - Option (4)

70)

Explanation

A. Isoelectronic species have the same number of electrons.

Concept

A. Option 1:

A. BO₃³⁻: 5 + (3 × 8) + 3 = 32 electrons

B. CO₃²⁻: 6 + (3 × 8) + 2 = 32 electrons

C. NO₃⁻: 7 + (3 × 8) + 1 = 32 electrons

B. Option 2:
 A. SO₃²⁻: 16 + (3 × 8) + 2 = 42 electrons

B. CO₃²⁻: 6 + (3 × 8) + 2 = 32 electrons

C. NO₃⁻: 7 + (3 × 8) + 1 = 32 electrons

C. Option 3:

A. CN⁻: 6 + 7 + 1 = 14 electrons

B. N₂: 7 + 7 = 14 electrons

C. C₂²⁻: 6 + 6 + 2 = 14 electrons

D. Option 4:

A. PO₄³⁻: 15 + (4 × 8) + 3 = 50 electrons

B. SO₄²⁻: 16 + (4 × 8) + 2 = 50 electrons

C. ClO₄⁻: 17 + (4 × 8) + 1 = 50 electrons

E. Option 2 contains species with different numbers of electrons.

Answer option 2, (SO₃²⁻, CO₃²⁻, NO₃⁻).

71)

72)

Explanation

A. Unpaired electrons lead to paramagnetic behavior. We need to examine the electronic

structure of each compound/ion.

Concept

A. NO₂⁺: Nitrogen has 5 valence electrons, oxygen has 6 each. Total valence electrons = 5
+ 2(6) - 1 (positive charge) = 16. These electrons pair up to form a linear molecule
(O=N=O), with no unpaired electrons.
 B. CaO₂: Calcium is +2, so O₂ is -2, meaning each oxygen has a -1 charge (superoxide, O₂⁻²
is peroxide). The peroxide ion (O₂²⁻) has all its electrons paired.

C. KO₂: Potassium is +1, so O₂ is -1 (superoxide, O₂⁻). The superoxide ion (O₂⁻) has an odd
number of electrons (2 * 6 + 1 = 13), leading to one unpaired electron.

D. Na₂O₂: Sodium is +1, so O₂ is -2 (peroxide, O₂²⁻). The peroxide ion (O₂²⁻) has all its
electrons paired.

Answer option 3, (KO₂ only).

73) EXPLANATION:- formal charge on each oxygen atom equal to −1/4

Concept Used: Formal charge

SOLUTION:- ClO₄⁻ (perchlorate ion)

• Total charge = –1
• 4 equivalent O atoms (due to resonance)
Formal charge=−1/4

Final Answer : Option (3)

74)

Electronic configuration of boron in ground state is 1s22s22p1.

75)

Explanation

A. Isostructural compounds have the same shape and arrangement of atoms (same
molecular geometry), regardless of the elements involved. This is determined by the
number of bond pairs and lone pairs of electrons around the central atom (VSEPR
theory).

Concept

A. Analyze the structure of each pair:

A. CO₂ and SO₂:

A. CO₂: Central C has 2 bond pairs and 0 lone pairs → Linear shape.

B. SO₂: Central S has 2 bond pairs and 1 lone pair → Bent (V-shaped) shape.
 C. Not isostructural.

B. SiF₄ and SF₄:

A. SiF₄: Central Si has 4 bond pairs and 0 lone pairs → Tetrahedral shape.

B. SF₄: Central S has 4 bond pairs and 1 lone pair → See-saw shape (distorted
tetrahedron).

C. Not isostructural.

C. XeF₂ and I₃⁻:

A. XeF₂: Central Xe has 2 bond pairs and 3 lone pairs → Linear shape.

B. I₃⁻: Central I has 2 bond pairs and 3 lone pairs → Linear shape.

C. Isostructural.

D. SF₆ and XeF₆:

A. SF₆: Central S has 6 bond pairs and 0 lone pairs → Octahedral shape.

B. XeF₆: Central Xe has 6 bond pairs and 1 lone pair → Distorted octahedral (or
capped octahedron) shape.

C. Not isostructural.

Answer option 3, (XeF₂ and I₃⁻).

76)

(1) 4 1 2 3

77)

Pentagonal planar

78)

sp3 hybridisation can only have pπ-dπ bond as it can not form pπ-pπ bond.
79)

Explanation :

Concept : (Hybridization of center atom)

NO3-

Hybridisation = ( 3 σ bond sp2)

NO2+

Hybridisation = ( 2σ bond sp)

NH4+

Hybridisation = ( 4σ bond sp3)

Final Answer - Option (2)

80)

F2 < Cl2 < Br2 < I2 → Bond dissociation energy

81) O2 → O2 +
2 unpaired 1 unpaired
– –
el el

82)
 BF3 + F– → BF4–

83)

H22–, He2

84)

85)

If both Assertion & Reason are False.

86)

LiCl < BeCl2 < BCl3 < CCl4

87)

Ion B.O

2.5

1.5

88)

LiF posseses the greatest lattice energy

89)

Explanation:

A. Polarisability is the ability of an ion's electron cloud to be distorted by an external electric

field. Larger ions with more loosely held electrons are more easily polarisable. For anions in
the same group, size increases down the group.

Concept:

A. The given ions are all halides (Group 17 anions). As we move down the group, the atomic size
increases because more electron shells are added. A larger size means the outermost electrons
 are further from the nucleus and are less tightly held, making them easier to distort.
Therefore, the polarisability increases down the group.
B. The order of increasing size is: F– < Cl– < Br– < I–
C. Consequently, the order of increasing polarisability is: F– < Cl– < Br– < I–
D. The question asks for the decreasing order of polarisable ions, so we reverse this order.

Answer : Option 4, (I– > Br– > Cl– > F–).

90)

Fajan's rule

BIOLOGY

91)

Let's match List-I with List-II:

A. (a) Metacentric chromosome → (ii): Centromere in the middle forming two equal arms of
chromosomes.

B. (b) Acrocentric chromosome → (iv): Centromere situated close to the end forming one
extremely short and one very long arm.

C. (c) Sub-metacentric chromosome → (iii): Centromere slightly away from the middle
forming one shorter arm and one longer arm.

D. (d) Telocentric chromosome → (i): Centromere at the terminal end.

So the correct matching is: (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)

Therefore,the correct answer is option 4.

92)

Correct Answer: 2 — Hydrolytic enzymes will become inactive. Explanation:

Lysosomes contain hydrolytic enzymes that are most active in an acidic pH (around 4.5-5.0).
If the pH is increased to alkaline, these enzymes will become inactive because they are
optimized to function in acidic conditions.

93)

Both statements A and B are correct

94) The inclusion bodies in blue-green, purple, and green photosynthetic bacteria are gas
vacuoles. These vacuoles help the bacteria maintain buoyancy, allowing them to position
themselves optimally in the water column for photosynthesis.

95)

Correct answer is option 4

96)

The 70S ribosomes are typically found in prokaryotes (like bacteria) and mitochondria or
plastids in eukaryotic cells. These organisms generally have circular, double-stranded, naked
DNA.
Correct answer: Option 2: Double stranded circular naked DNA.

97)

NCERT-XI Pg. # 11 Table 11.1

98)

The correct answer is: 4) Plasma membrane is bilayers of phospholipids with

associated proteins and carbohydrates

Explanation: The plasma membrane is primarily composed of a bilayer of phospholipids,

with proteins embedded within or attached to the lipid layers. It also has carbohydrates
attached to proteins (glycoproteins) or lipids (glycolipids), which play a role in cell recognition
and signaling.

99)

Pinosome

100) NCERT Pg. # 134

101) Explanation: Centrioles help in the formation of basal bodies for cilia and flagella. They
also assist in organizing spindle fibers during cell division in animal cells.
The correct answer is: (1) Form the basal body of Cilia

102)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question is asking why lipid molecules form a bilayer structure in
cell membranes, focusing on which property of lipids causes this arrangement.
Underlying Concept: Lipid molecules have an amphipathic nature, meaning they contain
both hydrophilic (water-attracting) heads and hydrophobic (water-repelling) tails. This dual
property causes the lipids to arrange themselves in a bilayer, with the hydrophilic heads facing
outward towards the aqueous environment and the hydrophobic tails facing inward away from
water, thus forming the fundamental structure of cell membranes.

Tips and Tricks: Remember that amphipathic molecules naturally form structures like
bilayers or micelles to minimize energy in watery environments.

Common Mistakes: Assuming that only the fluidity or saturation level of fatty acids
determines bilayer formation, rather than the amphipathic nature of lipids.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: "It has quasifluid nature" and "It provide fluid
character" relate more to membrane behavior rather than causing the bilayer structure. "It
has saturated fatty acid" is incorrect because even lipids with unsaturated fatty acids form
bilayers; saturation affects fluidity, not the fundamental bilayer formation.

103)

NCERT Page No. 135

104) NCERT XI Page # 97 para 8.5.5

105)

Telomeres

106)

Primary wall

107)

Cellulose, galactans, mannans and minerals

108)

Cyanobacteria

109)

RNA and protein

110)

A – (ii), B – (iii), C – (i), D – (v), E – (iv)

111) The fimbriae are small bristle likes fibres sprouting out of the cell.
The pile are elongated tubular structures made of a special protein

112)

Spindle fibres attach to secondary constriction of chromosomes.

113)

SOLUTION—

DNA replication
occurs before meiosis I, during the S phase of interphase, not before meiosis II.

The correct answer is: OPTION(1)DNA replication occurs in S phase of Meiosis-II

114)

SOLUTION—

The enzyme that catalyzes crossing over and the exchange of genetic material between
homologous chromosomes during meiosis is recombinase.

The correct answer is: OPTION(2)Recombinase

115)

NCERT Pg.#168

116)

SOLUTION—

The correct match for List-I with List-II is :

(a) S phase
matches with (iv) DNA replication.

(b) G2 phase
matches with (i) Proteins are synthesized.

(c) Quiescent stage

matches with (ii) Inactive phase.

(d) G1 phase
matches with (iii) Interval between mitosis and initiation of DNA replication.

The correct answer is: OPTION(3) (iv), (i), (ii), (iii).

117)

SOLUTION—

Diakinesis is the stage of meiotic prophase that shows terminalization of chiasmata as its
distinctive feature.

The correct answer is: OPTION(3)Diakinesis

118)

G1 phase

119)

SOLUTION—The stage during which separation of paired homologous chromosomes begins is

Diplotene. During this stage, the synaptonemal complex dissolves, and homologous
chromosomes begin to separate, remaining connected only at chiasmata.

120) NCERT XI pg.# 163

121)

NCERT Pg # 127

122)

NCERT-XI Pg#121

123)

a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)

124) NCERT XI Pg. No. # 138

125)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 121-124

126) Information Given:

• In S-phase:
• The number of chromosomes is n (haploid number).
• The DNA content is 2C (since the DNA has replicated).
Breakdown for other phases:
1. G1-phase:
• The cell has n chromosomes (still in a single set).
 • The DNA content is C (before replication starts).
2. S-phase:
• The number of chromosomes is n
• The DNA content is 2C (after replication, each chromosome now consists of two sister
chromatids).
3. G2-phase:
• The number of chromosomes remains n (because chromosome count doesn't change).
• The DNA content is 2C (the DNA has already been replicated).
Correct Answer:
1: n, C, n, 2C
Explanation:
• G1-phase: n chromosomes, C DNA content.
• S-phase: n chromosomes, 2C DNA content (DNA replication occurs).
• G2-phase: n chromosomes, 2C DNA content (since the chromosomes have been duplicated
but not yet divided).

127)

C-Telophase-nuclear envelope assembles around the chromosome clusters

128)

A–G0, B–nucleus, C–cytoplasm

129)

Diakinesis stage

130)

The correct answer is:

2. Root tip
Explanation:
Root tips, particularly from plants like onions, are the best material for studying mitosis in the
laboratory. This is because:

A. The root tip is a region of active cell division (meristematic tissue).

B. The cells in this region are constantly undergoing mitosis, providing a variety of stages for
observation.
C. It is easy to prepare and stain root tips to visualize chromosomes clearly under a microscope.

131)

Condensation → Disintegration of nuclear envelope → arrangement of chromosomes at equator

→ splitting of centromere → separation of sister chromatids → nuclear envelope develop around
the chromosome

132)
Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

133)

More than 95%

134)

Growth of cell

135)

species

136) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 269

137)

Carboxy haemoglobin

138)

O2 concentration in tissues is lower and CO2 concentration higher than that of lungs

139)

simple squamous epithelium

140)

2300 ml

141) NCERT XI, Pg. # 274

142)

Negative intra pleural pressure

143)

Cl– moves from RBCs to plasma

144)
 4 ml of CO2 to the alveoli

145)

Dissociation of oxyhaemoglobin due to high CO2 concentration in tissues

146)

The contraction of muscles of diaphragm & contraction of external intercostal muscles

147)

TV < ERV < RV < IRV

148)

When percentage saturation of haemoglobin is plotted against the partial pressure of oxygen,
a sigmoid curve is obtained.

149)

150)

Carbonic anhydrase

151)

(i) Thyroid cartilage Number = 1 Incomplete ring like or C-shaped

152) NCERT XI Pg # 268

153)

(4) Three a, d, e Two b, c

154)

a-Pleural membranes, b-Alveoli, c-Bronchiole, d-Bronchus

155)
 A. Question: Identify A, B, C, and D based on the partial pressures of oxygen and carbon
dioxide at different locations involved in gas exchange.

B. Given Data:

Respiratory Gases O2 (mm Hg) CO2 (mm Hg)

Atmospheric Air 159 0.3

A 104 40

Blood (Deoxygenated) 40 B

Blood (Oxygenated) C 40

Tissues 40 D

Export to Sheets

C. Concept: Gas exchange in the lungs and tissues, partial pressures of oxygen and carbon
dioxide.

D. Explanation:

A. A: The location with a partial pressure of oxygen (O2) at 104 mm Hg and carbon dioxide (CO2)
at 40 mm Hg is the alveoli. This is where gas exchange occurs between the air and the blood.
B. B: Deoxygenated blood arriving at the lungs has a low partial pressure of O2 (40 mm Hg) and a
relatively high partial pressure of CO 2 . The value of B, the partial pressure of CO 2 in
deoxygenated blood, is approximately 45 mm Hg.
C. C: Oxygenated blood leaving the lungs has a high partial pressure of O 2. This value, C, is
around 95 mm Hg. The CO2 pressure remains at 40 mm Hg.
D. D: Tissues have a low partial pressure of O 2 (40 mm Hg) because they are constantly
consuming oxygen. They also have a higher partial pressure of CO2 because they produce CO2
as a byproduct of metabolism. The partial pressure of CO2 in tissues, D, is approximately 45
mm Hg.

156)

P – depolarisation of atria

157) Question is Asking About:

Coronary heart disease is due to

Solution/Explanation:
It is due to insufficient blood supply to heart muscles.

158)

Erythrocytes - Life span 120 days - Destroyed in spleen

159)
(a) Proteins contribute 6-8 percent.
(b) Plasma without clotting factors is called serum
(c) Albumins is the only major proteins.
(d) Glucose, amino acids, lipids present are always in transit in the body.

160)

Erythroblastosis foetalis

161)

Haemoglobin is red colour respiratory pigment containing : Fe++

162)

Three statements are correct for RBC ?

163)

Oxygenated blood from lungs to heart

164) NCERT Pg. # 286

165) New NCERT Page No. 195

166)

Thrombin

167)

Plasma - Fibrinogen

168)

coronary artery disease (CAD)

169)

Three statements are correct about regulation of cardiac activity.

170)

a–s, b–r, c–p, d–q

 171)

Eosinophils :- No. = 2-3% function :- protection against infection

172)

A = Thrombokinase, B = Thrombin

173)

a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3, e-4

174)

Heart rate
Stroke volume

175)

What the Question Is Asking: Identify the system of blood vessels dedicated to circulating
blood to and from the cardiac musculature.

Solution:

A. The coronary circulation is a specialized system of blood vessels that supplies

oxygenated blood to the heart muscle (myocardium) and removes deoxygenated blood. It
ensures the heart receives the nutrients and oxygen it needs to function effectively.

B. The carotid system, systemic circulation, and pulmonary circulation serve different roles
in the body.

Final Answer : option (3). Coronary circulation

176)

(1) SA Node Right atrium Pacemaker

177)

Right ventricle → pulmonary arteries → lungs → pulmonary veins → left atrium

178)

Assertion and Reason are false statements

179) NCERT Pg. # 200 (15.3.2)

180)

Question Asking: The question presents an assertion about the human heart being
neurogentic and a reason explaining the ability of nodal musclature to generate action
potentials autonomously. It asks to evaluate the thruthfulness of the assertion and the reason,
and whether the reason correctly.
Solution Explanation:
The assertion is false, and the reason is true. The reason describes a characteristic of the
human heart (myogenic activity), which directly contradicts the asseriton that it is neurogenic.
The ability of the nodal tissue to generate its own action potentials is why the heart doesn't
need external nerve stinuli to beat, making it myogenic, not neurogenic.
Final Answer:
Option (2) Assertion is wrong but reason is true.