25-08-2024

2202CMD303036240003 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1) A train 100m long travelling at 40ms–1 overtakes another train 200 m long travelling at 30 ms–1.
The time taken by the first train to pass the second train is :

(1) 30 s
(2) 40 s
(3) 50 s
(4) 60 s

2) A person climbs up a stalled escalator in 60 s. If standing on the same but escalator running with
constant velocity he takes 40 s. How much time is taken by the person to walk up the moving
escalator?

(1) 45 s
(2) 27 s
(3) 37 s
(4) 24 s

3) A bird is flying towards south with a velocity 40km/h and a train is moving with a velocity 40 km/h
towards east. What is the velocity of the bird w.r.t. an obserber in the train?

(1) 40 km/h. N-E

(2) 40 km/h. S-E
(3) 40 km/h. S-W
(4) 40 km/h. N-W

4) Two particles are separated by a horizontal distance x as shown in figure. They are projected as
shown in figure with different initial speeds. The time after which the horizontal distance between
them becomes zero is :

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4) None of these

5) Six persons of same mass travel with same speed u along a regular hexagon of side 'd' such that
each one always faces the other. After how what will they meet each other ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) Rain drops are falling vertically downwards along –y direction. A man is moving with a speed of
10 km/hr horizontally along +x direction. he feels that rain drops are hitting him at an angle of 30°
from vertical then calculate velocity of rain drop with respect to man :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

7) A man standing in the rain holds a umbrella at an angle 30° from vertical. He throws the umbrella
and start running with speed 10 km/hr. He finds that rain drops are hitting his head vertically. Find
the actual speed of rain drops :-

(1) 20 km/hr
(2) km/hr

(3)
km/hr
(4) km/hr

8) A boy is running on a levelled road with velocity (v) with a long hollow tube in his hand. Water is
falling vertically downwards with velocity (u). At what angle to the vertical, should he incline the
tube so that the water drops enters without touching its side :

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

9) A swimmer can swim in still water with 5 m/s. If a river is flowing with 4 m/s, then find the time to
cross the river of width 300 m if he has to reach to exactly opposite point :

(1) 60 sec
(2) 75 sec
(3) 100 sec

(4)
sec

10) A river 5 Km wide is flowing at the rate of 2 Km/H. The minimum time taken by a boat to cross
the river with a speed 5 Km/H (in still water) is approximately :-

(1) 150 min

(2) 30 min
(3) 60 min
(4) 90 min

11) A man swims from a point A on one bank of a river of width 100 m. When he swims
perpendicular to the water current, he reaches the other bank 50 m downstream. The angle to the
bank at which he should swim, to reach the directly opposite point B on the other bank is :-

(1) 10°
(2) 20°
(3) 30°
(4) 60°

12) Inertia means :-

(1) Resistance to uniform motion

(2) Resistance to rest
(3) Resistance to deform
(4) Resistance to change in its state of motion

13) A passenger getting down from a moving bus, falls in the direction of the motion of the bus. This
is an example for :-

(1) Second law of motion

(2) Third law of motion
(3) Inertia of rest
(4) Inertia of motion
14) The ratio of gravitational mass to inertial mass is equal to :

(1)

(2) 2
(3) 1
(4) None of these

15) A balloon of mass M is descending with a constant acceleration g/3. When a mass m is released
from the balloon it starts rising with the same acceleration g/3. The value of m is (Assuming that its
volume does not change) :–

(1)

(2)

(3) 4M
(4) 2M

16) The velocity of a body of mass 2 kg as a function of t is given by v(t) = . Find the
momentum and the force acting on it, at time t = 2s.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of the above

17)
p → Momentum, t → sec.

Calculate = ?

(1) 1 :
(2) :1

(3)

(4)

18) The force F acting on a particle of mass m is indicated by the force-time graph shown below. The
change in momentum of the particle over the time interval from zero to 8 s is :-
(1) 24 N-s
(2) 20 N-s
(3) 12 N-s
(4) 6 N-s

19) A force 10 N acts on a body of mass 20 kg for 10 sec. Change in its momentum is-

(1) 5 kg m/s
(2) 100 kg m/s
(3) 200 kg m/s
(4) 1000 kg m/s

20) A machine gun fires bullets of 50 gm at the speed of 1000 m/sec. If the average force of 200 N is
exerted on the gun, the number of bullets fired per minute is-

(1) 240
(2) 120
(3) 60
(4) 30

21) A lift of mass 100kg starts moving from rests in downward direction. fig. shows the variation of
speed of the lift. T1, T2, T3 stands for tension in the rope from zero to two seconds, two to six seconds,

six to seven seconds respectively then :-

(1) T1, : T2 : T3 : : 1 : 1 : 1
(2) T1, : T2 : T3 : : 4 : 5 : 7
(3) T1, : T2 : T3 : : 6 : 5 : 3
(4) T1, : T2 : T3 : : 6 : 5 : 6

22) A 0.5 kg ball moving with a speed of 12 m/s strikes a hard wall at an angle of 30° with the wall.
It is reflected with the same speed and at the same angle. If the ball is in contact with the wall for
0.25 seconds, the average force acting on the wall is :-

(1) 48 N
(2) 24 N
(3) 12 N
(4) 96 N

23) Water jet whose cross – sectional diameter is cm/s hits a vertical wall horizontally and then
does not rebound. If speed of water jet is 2 m/s then find the force applied by jet on the wall.

(1) 4 N
(2) 2 N
(3) 1 N
(4) 0.5 N

24) A cricket ball of mass 250 g is moving with speed 12 m/s and hit by a bat so that it returns back
with speed 20 m/s. If the contact time is 0.01 sec, then find out the average force applied by the bat
on the ball :-

(1) 600 N
(2) 800 N
(3) 1000 N
(4) 400 N

25) If force
F = 12t2 + 5 N
then find change in momentum from t = 0 to t = 2 sec.

(1) 53 kg m/sec.
(2) 43 kg m/sec.
(3) 42 kg m/sec.
(4) 29 kg m/sec.

26) Assertion : Newton's second law of motion gives the measurement of force.
Reason : According to Newton's second law of motion, force is directly proportional to the rate of
change of momentum.
(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Assertion and reason both are false.

27) Action and reaction :

(a) act on two different objects
(b) have equal magnitude
(c) have opposite directions
(d) have resultant zero
(A) a, b, c, d (B) a, b, c
(C) b, c, d (D) a, b

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

28) A diwali rocket is ejecting 0.5 kg of gases per second at a velocity of 400 m/sec. The accelerating
force on the rocket is :-

(1) 20 dynes
(2) 20 N
(3) 22 dynes
(4) 1000 N

29) Blocks of masses 1.0 kg, 2.0 kg and 3.0 kg are lined up on a horizontal table, as shown in figure.
A rightward-pointing 12N force is applied to the left most block. What force does the middle block

exert on the right most one ?

(1) 6 N
(2) 10 N
(3) 12 N
(4) 8 N

30) In the system shown in the figure, the acceleration of the 1 kg mass and the tension in the string

connecting between A and B is :

(1)
downwards ,

(2)
upwards,

(3)
downwards , g

(4)
upwards , g

31) Three identical blocks of mass m = 2kg are drawn by a force of 10.2 N on frictionless surface.
The tension (in N) in the string between the blocks B and C is :-

(1) 9.2
(2) 8
(3) 3.4
9.8
(4)

32) Two blocks whose sum of masses is 1 kg were arranged as shown. Acceleration of blocks, when
A is hanging is twice that of when B is hanging, the mass of A is (neglect friction) :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) Find acceleration of system :-

(1) 2 m/s2
(2) 1 m/s2
(3) 0 m/s2
(4) 3 m/s2

34) A mass M of 100 kg is suspended with the use of strings A, B and C as shown in the figure,
where W is the vertical wall and R is a rigid horizontal rod. The tension in the string B is :-

(1) 100 g N
(2) zero
(3)

(4)

35) Find the acceleration of 3 kg mass when acceleration of 2 kg mass is 2 ms–2 as shown in figure.

(1) 3 ms–2
(2) 2 ms–2
(3) 0.5 ms–2
(4) zero

SECTION-B

1) Figure shows a uniform rod of length 30 cm having a mass 3.0 kg. The rod is pulled by constant
force of 20 N and 32 N as shown. Find the force exerted by 20 cm part of the rod on the 10 cm part

(all surfaces are smooth) is :

(1) 36 N
(2) 12 N
(3) 64 N
(4) 24 N

2) If all the surfaces are smooth then find force exerted by C on B :-

(1) 30 N
(2) 50 N
(3) 20 N
(4) 100 N

3) In Fig, tension in the string that connects the masses A and B is T1 and that in the string
connecting B and C is T2, then T1/T2 is :

(1) 2
(2) 0.5
(3) 4
(4) 0.25

4) A body is in equilibrium under the action of three coplanar forces P, Q and R as shown in the

figure. Select the correct statement :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) Two blocks A and B of masses 2m and m, respectively, are connected by a massless and
inextensible string. The whole system is suspended by a massless spring as shown in the figure. The
magnitudes of acceleration of A and B, immediately after the string is cut, are respectively :-
(1) g, g/2
(2) g/2, g
(3) g, g
(4) g/2, g/2

6) A 60 kg painter stands on a 15 kg platform. A rope attached to the platform and passing over an
overhad pully allows the painter to raise himself along should he apply to maintain the constant

speed of 1m/sec :-

(1) 1500 N
(2) 750 N
(3) 375 N
(4) 600 N

7) The velocity of end ‘A’ of rigid rod placed between two smooth surfaces moves with velocity ‘u’
along vertical direction. Find out the velocity of end ‘B’ of that rod, rod always remains in contact

with the vertical walls.

(1) u tan θ
(2) u sin θ
(3) u cot θ
(4) u cos θ

8) An elevator in which a man is standing is moving upwards with a speed of 10 m/sec. If a man
drops a coin from a height of 2.45 m, it reaches the floor of the elevator after a time :-
(1)

(2)

(3) 2 sec

(4)

9) A police party is chasing a dacoit in a jeep which is moving at a constant speed v. The dacoit is on
a motor cycle. When he is at a distance x from the jeep he accelerates at a constant rate α. Which of
the following relations is true, if the police is able to catch the dacoit?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

10) A bird is flying with a speed of 40 km/hr. in the north direction. A train is moving with a speed of
40 km/hr. in the west direction. A passenger sitting in the train will see the bird moving with velocity
:

(1) 40 km/hr in NE direction

(2) km/hr in NE direction
(3) 40 km/hr in NW direction
(4) km/hr in NW direction

11) A bird flies to and fro between two cars which move with velocities v1 = 20 m/s and v2 = 30 m/s.
If the speed of the bird is v3 = 10 m/s and the initial separation between cars d = 2 km, find the total

distance covered by the bird till the cars meet :-

(1) 2000 m
(2) 1000 m
(3) 400 m
(4) 200 m

12) If the rain is falling vertically downwards with velocity 20 m/s and if a bike is going with
velocity 30 m/s. Calculate at what angle to the vertical he must incline the umbrella so that he can
safe himself from rain :-

(1)

(2)
(3) tan–1 (1)

(4)

13)

A ball A is thrown up vertically with a speed u and at the same instant another ball B is released
from a height h. At time t, the speed of A relative to B is :-

(1) u
(2) 2u
(3) u – gt

(4)

14) A boat takes t1 hour to cover certain distance between two spots in a river in down stream and t2
hours in upstream. The ratio of speed of boat to that of river is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15)

A boat crosses a river from port A to port B, which are just on opposite side. The speed of water is
and that of boat is relative to water. Assume . What is the time taken by boat if it
has to cross river directly on AB line? (Here AB = D)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

1) Which of the following structures has the S-configuration at the chiral centre :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All of these

2) L-configuration are :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 1 & 2 both

3) Compound given below is :-

(1) is called thero isomer

(2) is called erythreo isomer
(3) is called diastereomer
(4) is a recemic mixture

4) The given pair is :-

(1) Enantiomers
(2) Homomer
(3) Constitutional isomers
(4) Diastereomers

5) (2R, 3R)–2, 3 butandiol is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) Find out relation between I and II :-

(1) Enantiomers
(2) Diastereomers
(3) Homomers
(4) Structural isomers

7) and are :-

(1) Identical
(2) Enantiomers
(3) Diastereomers
(4) Mesomers

8) Find correct statement :-

 Chiral molecule is always optically active and compound without chiral carbon is always
(1)
optically inactive
(2) Achirality is essential condition for optical activity
(3) Compounds having chiral carbons always show optical activity
(4) Compounds having chiral carbon always show optical isomerism.

9) Which of the following compound is optically active?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) Total number of stereoisomers for following compounds are :-

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 8
(4) 6

11) Which of the following do not shows optical isomerism :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) Dihedral angle of least stable conformer of ethane is :

(1) 120°
(2) 180°
(3) 60°
(4) 0°

13) Correct match is

Column-I Column-II

(P) (a) Meso compound

(Q) (b) Optically active

(R) (c) Optically inactive

(1) P → a ; Q → b ; R → c
(2) P → a ; Q → c ; R → b
(3) P → c ; Q → b ; R → a
(4) P → c ; Q → a ; R → b

14) Which statement is true for enantiomers :-

(1) Have same boiling point

(2) Are chiral molecules
(3) Can have axis of symmetry
(4) All

15) The IUPAC name of following compound along with configuration will be :-

(1) 3S, 3-hydroxy butan-2-one

(2) 3R, 3-hydroxy butan-2-one
(3) 2S, 2-hydroxy butan-3-one
(4) 2S, 3-hydroxy butan-2-one

16) The correct statement about compound A, B and C is :-

(1) A and B are enantiomers

(2) B and C are enantiomers
(3) A and C are diastereomers
(4) Both (2) and (3)

17)

If angle of rotation of is +52° then angle of rotation of is :-

(1) 0°
(2) +104°
(3) –52°
(4) Nothing can be said

18) The most stable conformation of 2–Floroethanol is :-

(1) skew
(2) staggered
(3) eclipsed
(4) gauche

19) Compound A undergoes complete tetramerisation in the given solvent. The Van't Hoff factor is

(1) 2.0
(2) 0.5
(3) 0.25
(4) 0.125

20) Which solution will show the maximum vapour pressure at 300 K

(1) 1 M C12H22O11
(2) 1 M CH3COOH
(3) 1 M MgCl2
(4) 1 M NaCl

21) Which has the highest boiling point?

(1) 0.1 m Na2SO4

(2) 0.1 m Al(NO3)3
(3) 0.1 m MgCl2
(4) 0.1 m C6H12O6(glucose)

22)

Arrange the following solutions in order of decreasing osmotic pressure. Assum 100% ionisation for
electrolytes :-

(1) I > II > III

(2) III > II > I
(3) II > III > I
(4) II > I > III

23) The value of van't Hoff factor for 0.1M Ba(NO3)2 solution is 2.74. Hence the degree of
dissociation would be :-

(1) 91.3%
(2) 87%
(3) 100%
(4) 74%

24) If 0.1m aqueous solutions, each of urea, common salt and sodium sulphate, are taken. The ratio
of their elevation in boiling points are respectively:

(1) 1 : 1 : 1
(2) 1 : 2 : 1
(3) 1 : 2 : 3
(4) 3 : 2 : 1

25) Osmotic pressure of 0.1 M Na2SO4 solution at 300 K, if degree of dissociation of Na2SO4 is 60 % :-

(1) 3.5 atm

(2) 5.4 atm
(3) 6.5 atm
(4) 8.9 atm
26)
Order of B.P of the solution formed is :-

(1) I > II > III

(2) I < II < III
(3) I = II = III
(4) Data Insufficient

27) When HgI2 is added in KI solution. The freezing point of solution :-

(1) Increases
(2) Decreases
(3) Remains unchanged
(4) Can't predict

28)

Freezing point of NaCl solution is marked as :-

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

29) In a reaction PCl5 PCl3 + Cl2 degree of dissocation is 30%. If initial moles of PCl5 is one then
total moles at equilbrium is -

(1) 1.3
(2) 0.7
(3) 1.6
(4) 1.0

30) In the following reaction which one oxide is more stable :-

(1) MO
(2) MO2
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None

31)

The application of equilibrium constant is

(1) To predict the extent of a reaction on the basis of the magnitude of equilibrium constant
(2) To predict the direction of the reaction
(3) To calculate equilibrium concentrations
(4) All of the above

32)
According to this graph reaction will be :-

(1) Endothermic
(2) Exothermic
(3) Spontaneous at room temperature
(4) ΔH is negligible

33) A(g) is 100% converted into B according to, the reaction A(g) 3B(g) value of at this point
is :-

(1) 1.0
(2) 2.0
(3) 2.5
(4) 3.0

34) Identify the set of correct statement -

(a) If KC > 103 ; product predominate over reactant
(b) If KC < 10–3 ; reactant predominate over product.
(c) If KC is in the range of 10–3 to 103 ; appreciable concentration of both reactant and product are
present.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below-

(1) a, b only
(2) c only
(3) a, b, c only
(4) b, c only

35) For a gas phase reaction

A2 + B2 2 AB ΔH = – 64 kcal
Which of the following is true–

(1) K is indepedent of T.
(2) K decreases as T increases
(3) K increases as T increases
(4) K varies with addition of AB.

SECTION-B

1)

Above Gauche form is stable when Z is:

(1) –F
(2) —OH
(3) —OCH3
(4) All of these

2) Which conformer of n-butane has minimum energy?

(1) Gauche
(2) Eclipse
(3) Partial eclipse
(4) Anti

3)
A will be more stable than B if X is :

(1) –CH3
(2) –C2H5
(3) –F
(4) –I

4)

What is the dihydral angle in case of stagered conformer of ethane?

(1) 30°
(2) 45°
(3) 75°
(4) 60°

5) Which of the following is correct match.

(a) (i) fully eclipsed

(b) (ii) partial eclipsed

(c) (iii) Gauche

(d) (iv) Anti

(1) a - i; b - ii; c - iii; d - iv

(2) a - i; b - iii; c - ii; d - iv
(3) a - ii; b - iii; c - iv; d - i
(4) a - ii; b - iii; c - i; d - iv

6) Which of the following are conformer of each other:-

(1)
(2)
,

(3)

,
(4) All of these

7) Which is most stable conformer ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) The active mass of 128 gm HI in 10 L flask would be – (At. wt. of I = 127 gmol–1)

(1) Unity
(2) 2.5
(3) 0.1
(4) 1.0

9) In which of the following case Kp is less than Kc :

(1) PCl5 PCl3 + Cl2

(2) H2 + Cl2 2HCl
(3) 2SO2 + O2 2SO3
(4) All of these

10) For the gas phase reaction

N2 + O2 2NO ΔH = + 180 kJ mol–1 Which of the following is true

(1) The value of K changes with changes in pressure

(2) The value of K changes with introduction of NO
(3) The value of K changes with change in concentration of N2
(4) The value of K changes with change in temperature

11) The equilibrium constant for a reaction; N2 + 3H2 2NH3, is K. The equilibrium constant for the

reaction. NH3 N2 + H2 is :

(1) 1/K
(2) K2–
(3) K–1/2
(4) K1/2

12) Favourable conditions for melting of ice are :-

(1) High temperature and low pressure

(2) High temperature and high pressure
(3) Low temperature and high pressure
(4) Low temperature and low pressure

13) Select the incorrect statement :-

(1) There is no change in the concentration of the reactants and products at equilibrium
(2) Equilibrium is dynamic in nature
(3) Equilibrium can be approached from either of the directions
(4) Catalyst can alter the state of equilibrium

14) For a reaction at equilibrium rate constant of forward and backward reaction are 2.5 × 10–4 sec–1
and 7.5 × 10–4 sec–1 respectively. Then equilibrium constant is :-

(1) 3
(2) 1/3
(3) 1
(4) None

15)
Where,
D = Theoretical (initial) vapour density
d = vapour density of mixture
α = Degree of dissociation
This formula is applicable for

(1) PCl5(g)→ PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)

(2) N2O4(g)→ 2NO2(g)
(3) N2(g) + 3H2(g)→ 2NH3(g)
(4) Both 1 and 2

BOTANY

SECTION-A

1) Which set of example related with Pteridophytes :-

(1) Sphagnum and Salvinia

(2) Selaginella and Sargassum
(3) Equisetum and Adiantum
(4) Marchantia and Marselia

2) Given below is the diagram of organism identify the parts labelled A, B, C and D, and select the

right option about them :- Options :-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

3) Select the incorrect statement

(1) The roots of Cycas are in fungal association forming mycorrhiza.

(2) The gymnosperms are heterosporous as they produce haploid microspores and megaspores.
(3) Needle-like leaves in conifers is a xerophytic adaptation.
Unlike bryophytes and pteridophytes, in gymnosperms the male and the female gametophytes
(4)
do not have an independent free-living existence.

4) Some characters/structures are given below. How many of them are found in both gymnosperm
and pteridophyta ?
(A) Archegonium (B) Protonema
(C) Embryo (D) Fruit
(E) Vascular tissue (F) Endosperm
Option :-

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Five

5) Species of which plant provide peat that have long been used as 'fuel' and as packing material for
trans-shipment of living material because of their capacity to hold water -

(1) Selaginella
(2) Salvinia
(3) Sargassum
(4) Sphagnum

6) Read the following statement

(A) Bryophytes play an important role in plant succssion on bare rocks
(B) In liverwort male and female sex organs are always produced on same thalli
(C) In Moss, the sex organ are produced at the apex of the leafy shoots
(D) In Bryophytes some cells of the sporophyte undergo reduction division to produce haploid spore
Choose the correct optoin

(1) A and B statements are correct

(2) A, C and D statements are incorrect
(3) A,B and C Statements are correct
(4) A,C and D Statements are correct

7) Common example of moss is/are :-

(1) Funaria
(2) Sphagnum
(3) Polytrichum
(4) All of the above

8) The gametophyte of pteridophytes is

(1) Autotrophic
(2) Heterotrophic
(3) Saprophyte
(4) Partial parasite

9)

In pteridophytes, fusion of gametes take place in:-

(1) External medium
(2) Antheridium
(3) Sporangium
(4) Archegonium

10) Select incorrect statement w.r.t. bryophytes

(1) Have independent gametophyte with unicellular rhizoids always

(2) Sporophyte is fully or partially dependent upon gametophyte
(3) They are non-vascular archegoniates
(4) Homosporous forms with sporic meiosis

11) Read the following statements and select the correct option.
Statement A : The male and female gametophytes do not have an independent free-living existence
in pteridophytes.
Statement B : All gymnosperms are heterosporous

(1) Only statement A is correct

(2) Only statement B is correct
(3) Both statements are incorrect
(4) Both statements are correct

12) In which among the following plant groups some members show the events precursor to the
seed habit?

(1) Bryophyta
(2) Gymnosperm
(3) Angiosperm
(4) Pteridophyta

13) In liverworts, the direct germination of spore give rise to.

(1) Prothallus
(2) Protonema
(3) Gametophyte
(4) Sporophyte

14) Which of the following is heterosporous pteridophyte ?

(1) Selaginella
(2) Dryopteris
(3) Pteris
(4) Adiantum

15)

Gemmae are asexual reproductive bodies of :-

(1) Algae
(2) Liverwort
(3) Pteridophytes
(4) All of these

16) In bryophytes, antheridium produces ....A... and archegonium produces ...B.... . Here A and B
refer to:-

(1) A-motile antherozoids; B-non motile eggs

(2) A-motile antherozoids; B-motile egg
(3) A-non motile antherozoids; B-motile egg
(4) A-non motile antherozoids; B-non motile eggs

17) Microphyllous pteriodphyte is :-

(1) Pteris
(2) Salvinia
(3) Selaginella
(4) Adiantum

18) Statement-I : Bryophytes in general are of great economic importance.

Statement-II : Mosses along with lichen colonises rocks.

(1) Both statements are correct.

(2) Only II statement is correct.
(3) Only I statement is correct.
(4) Both statements are false.

19) In gymnosperms, pollination takes place by :-

(1) wind
(2) water
(3) insects
(4) animals

20) Plants having vascular tissues but lacking seeds are :-

(1) Bryophyta
(2) Pteridophyta
(3) Gymnosperms
(4) Angiosperms

21) Read the following statements & select the correct option :
(A) Gymnosperms include different types of plants like medium size tree, tall trees and shrubs.
(B) In Cycas coralloid roots are associated with mycorrhiza
(C) In conifers needle like leaves reduce the surface area.
(D) Except a few, all other gymnosperms are homosporous
How many statements are correct & incorrect from them:-

(1) 2 - correct, 2 - incorrect

(2) 3 - correct, 1 - incorrect
(3) 1 - correct, 3 - incorrect
(4) 0 - correct, 4 - incorrect

22) Vascular plants that produces seeds but no fruits are :-

(1) Bryophytes
(2) Pteridophytes
(3) Gymnosperms
(4) Angiosperms

23) Assertion : The first stage of the life cycle of moss is protonema stage, which represents
sporophyte generation.
Reason : Protonema is a creeping, green, branched and frequently filamentous stage.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is False but the Reason is True.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

24) In pteridophytes, spores germinates to give rise to inconspicuous, small but multicellular, free
living, mostly photosynthetic, thalloid gametophytes, called:-

(1) Protonema
(2) Prothallus
(3) Endosperm
(4) Embryosac

25) The needle like leaves, reduced surface area, thick cuticle and sunken stomata are the
characteristic features of the which group of plants generally :

(1) Pteridophyte
(2) All bryophytes
(3) Gymnosperm (conifers)
(4) Angiosperm

26) Match the columns I and II, and choose the correct combination from the options given :-

Column I Column II
i. a. Fern

ii. b. Equisetum

iii. c. Selaginella

iv. d. Salvinia

Find the correct match.

(1) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i
(2) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
(3) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
(4) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii

27) Gametophyte of fern produces :-

(1) Gametes
(2) Spores
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Sporangia

28) Which statement is correct about mosses ?

(1) They have dominant and independent sporophyte

(2) Their antherozoids require water for fertilization
(3) Their archegonia produce many eggs
(4) Their antherozoids are multiflagellated

29) In Gymnosperm, Endosperm is formed :

(1) After fertilization
(2) After Zygote formation
(3) Before fertilization
(4) During embryonic development

30) Spore dispersal in some liverwort is aided by :

(1) Peristomial teeth

(2) Calyptra
(3) Elaters
(4) Capsule

31) Which of the following is responsible for peat formation ?

(1) Riccia
(2) Sphagnum
(3) Funaria
(4) Marchantia

32) Assertion (A) : Cycas is a dioecious gymnosperm.

Reason (R) : Male cone and female cone are present same plant in Cycas and seeds are not covered
by ovary wall.

(1) A is true while R is false

(2) A and R both are true and R explain A
(3) A and R both are false
(4) A and R both are true and R does not explain A

33) Assertion (A) : Bryophytes are considered as amphibians of plant kingdom.

Reason (R) : Bryophytes grow in moist shady places and required water for fertilization.

(1) A and R both are false

(2) A and R both are true and R is correct explanation of A
(3) A and R both are correct but R is not correct explanation of A
(4) A is true while R is false

34) Select the correct option w.r.t. ploidy level of capsule, seta and rhizoids respectively in Funaria.

(1) 2n, 2n and n

(2) n, n and 2n
(3) 2n, n and 2n
(4) n, 2n and n

35) Stem tendrils which develop from axillary buds, are found in :-

(1) Zaminkand
(2) Opunita
(3) Grapevines
(4) Smilax

SECTION-B

1) What type of phyllotaxy can be seen in Alstonia ?

(1) Alternate
(2) Opposite
(3) Whorled
(4) None of the above

2) In which plant petiole expand, become green and synthese food ?

(1) Asparagus
(2) Opuntia
(3) Australian acacia
(4) Euphorbia

3) Assertion : Fibrous roots are found in wheat plants.

Reason : In monocotyledonous plants, the primary roots are short lived, and is replaced by a large
numbers of roots.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

4) Select the incorrect matching:

(1) Leaf into tendril - Pea

(2) Leaf into spine - Cacti
(3) Fleshy leaf - Onion and garlic
(4) Whorled phyllotaxy - Calotropis

5) Which root show negative geotropism?

(1) Stilt root

(2) Prop root
(3) Pneumatophores
(4) Tap root

6) Nitrogen-fixing bacteria are found in :-

(1) Conical root

(2) Tuberous root
(3) Fusiform root
(4) Nodulated root

7) Which of the given function is generally not performed by roots?

(1) Absorption of water

(2) Absorption of minerals
(3) Anchorage to the plant parts
(4) Synthesis of food materials

8)

Swollen leaf base is called

(1) Lamina
(2) petiole
(3) pulvinus
(4) leaf blade

9)

These are the figures representing the modification of :-

(1) Roots for food storage

(2) Stem for food storage
(3) Leaf for food storage
(4) Inflorescence of plants

10) Thorn in Citrus are modified ?

(1) Axillary bud of stem

(2) Stipule of leaf
(3) Terminal bud of stem
(4) Leaf

11) Petiole modified into green, flattened structure for assimilatory function is :-

(1) Phyllode
(2) Phylloclade
(3) Cladode
(4) Bulbil

12) Which is not a correct match :

(1) Prop root – banyan tree

(2) Stilt root – Radish
(3) Respiratory root – Rhizophora
(4) Storage root – Sweat potato

13) Which is not a character of leaves :

(1) Originate from shoot apical meristem

(2) Arrange in basipetal order
(3) Bears a bud in its axil
(4) Flattened photo synthetic structure

14) The function of root cap is-

(1) Provide protection to root apex

(2) Storage of food products
(3) Absorption of nutrients
(4) None of the above

15) Leaves are originated from A and present at B . A and B are respectively :-

(1) Node and axillary bud

(2) Node and internode
(3) Shoot apical meristem and axillary bud
(4) Shoot apical meristem and node

ZOOLOGY

SECTION-A

1) Respiration occurs through organs like gills, book gills, book lungs or tracheal system found in
phylum.

(1) Mollusca
(2) Annelida
(3) Arthropoda
(4) Echinodermata

2) Select the economically important insect -

(1) Locusta
(2) Culex
(3) Aedes
(4) Apis

3) Identify the given figure (a), (b), (c) and (d) respectively.

(a) Butterfly, (b) Locust,

(1)
(c) Prawn, (d) Scorpion
(a) Locust, (b) Butterfly,
(2)
(c) Scorpion, (d) Prawn
(a) Prawn, (b) Butterfly,
(3)
(c) Locust, (d) Scorpion
(a) Scorpion, (b) Prawn,
(4)
(c) Locust, (d) Butterfly

4) Statement-I :- Body of Arthropods consists of Head, thorax and Abdomen.

Statement-II :- Excretion take place through Nephridia.

(1) Statement I and II both are correct

(2) Statement I and II both are incorrect
(3) Only statement I is correct
(4) Only statement II is incorrect

5) File like rasping organ radula for feeding is present in :-

(1) Arthopoda
(2) Annelida
(3) Mollusca
(4) Echinodermata

6) Match the following:

Column I Column II
(i) Pearl oyster (a) Aplysia
(ii) Sea hare (b) Loligo
(iii) Tusk shell mollusk (c) Pinctada
 (iv) Squid (d) Dentalium

(1) (i) – (c), (ii) – (a), (iii) – (b), (iv) – (d)

(2) (i) – (c), (ii) – (a), (iii) – (d), (iv) – (b)
(3) (i) – (a), (ii) – (c), (iii) – (d), (iv) – (b)
(4) (i) – (a), (ii) – (c), (iii) – (b), (iv) – (d)

7) In mollusca gills (feather like) has the functions :

(1) Respiratory and circulatory

(2) Circulatory and excretory
(3) Excretory and respiratory
(4) Excretory, respiratory and circulatory

8) Some animals are given in the list below:

Asterias, Pila, Echinus, Antedon, Pinctada, Cucumaria, Octopus, Loligo, Ophiura, Dentalium
How many animals among these are related to the second largest phylum of animal

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Five

9) Many molluscs have an ability to analyse the quality of water. For this, they use :-

(1) Osphradia
(2) Statocyst
(3) Ctenidia
(4) Lithocyst

10)

Which of the following is commonly called 'Pearl Oyster' ?

(1) Limulus
(2) Pinctada
(3) Dentalium
(4) Chaetoplenura

11) Water vascular system is found in :-

(1) Porifera
(2) Echinodermata
(3) Mollusca
(4) Elasmobranchi

12)
Which of the following phylum possesses all three features; radial symmetry, true colom and
complete digestive tract ?

(1) Mollusca
(2) Echinodermata
(3) Porifera
(4) Arthropoda

13) One of the pair is mismatched as far as Echinoderms are concerned. Identify :-

(1) Sea cucumber — Cucumeria

(2) Sea urchin — Antedon
(3) Brittle star — Ophiura
(4) Star fish — Asterias

14) Identify the animal (A) and name the phylum to which its belong (B) :

(1) A-Balanoglossus, B-Hemichordata

(2) A-Balanoglossus, B-Cephalochordata
(3) A-Nereis, B-Urochordata
(4) A-Nereis, B-Annelida

15) Body of Hemichordates is divided into three parts

(1) Head, trunk, tail

(2) Head, collar, trunk
(3) Head, Neck, Tail
(4) Proboscis, Collar, trunk

16) Which of the following statement is incorrect for hemichordates?

A. Excretion by general body surface
B. Body contains proboscis, collor and trunk
C. Close circulation is found
D. Respiration by proboscis gland

(1) A, B & D
(2) B & C
(3) A, C & D
(4) A, B & C

17) Assertion : Balanoglossus & Saccoglossus was earlier consider in phylum Chordata but now
placed seperate in phylum under non chordate
Reason : Hemichordata have a rudimentary structure in collar region called stomochord, a
structure similar to notochord.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

18) Which among the following is true

(1) All vertebrates have open circulatory system

(2) All chordates have closed circulatory system
(3) All chordates are vertebrates
(4) All vertebrates are chordates

19) Identify A, B, C & D

(1) A–Notochord, B–Nerve Cord, C–Post anal part, D–Gill slits

A–Gill slits, B–Notochord, C–Post anal part,
(2)
D–Nerve Cord
A–Nerve Cord, B–Notochord, C–Gill slits,
(3)
D–Post anal part
(4) A–Post anal part, B–Notochord, C–Nerve Cord, D–Gill slits

20) Among these, which pair of fishes are jawless ?

(1) Myxine and Lamprey

(2) Sawfish and Dogfish
(3) Hagfish and Electric ray
(4) Rohu and Sting ray

21) Homeothermy is exhibited by:

(1) All amniotes

(2) Birds and Mammals
(3) All deuterostomes
(4) Reptiles and Mammals
22) Which of the following is devoid of scales–

(1) Pristis
(2) Lamprey
(3) Shark
(4) Lung fish

23) The animal who possesses notochord throughout the life

(1) Fish
(2) Amphioxus
(3) Bird
(4) Snake

24) Notochord is only present in the tail of larva :-

(1) Ascidia and Petromyzon

(2) Doliolum and Myxine
(3) Ascidia and Salpa
(4) Myxine and Petromyzon

25) In cyclostomata, cranium and vertebral column is :

(1) Cartilaginous
(2) Bony
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Either 1 or 2

26) Select the odd one out w.r.t Petromyzon

(1) Elongated body

(2) Closed circulation
(3) Paired fins
(4) Cranium is cartilaginous

27) Agnatha is represented by which class

(1) Cyclostomata
(2) Chondrithyes
(3) Osteicthyes
(4) Both 2 and 3

28) In class cyclostomata they have elongated body which bear gill slits for respiration they are-

(1) 6-15 pair

(2) 6-12 pair
(3) 6-8 pair
(4) 16-32 pair

29)

Some important features are mentioned in the box below :

Oviparous only, Internal fertilization only, cold-blooded, placoid scales, mesonephric kidneys,
streamlined body

How many of the features are common both to chondrichthyes and osteichthyes ?
(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) Five

30) Select correct option for bony fishes :

(1) Gills are covered by operculum

(2) The skin is tough, containing minute placoid scales
(3) In males pelvic fins bear claspers
(4) Internal fertilization

31) Which of the following is not an Osteichthyes?

(1) Exocoetus
(2) Pterophyllum
(3) Hippocampus
(4) Carcharodon

32) Assertion : Condrichthyes fishes swim constantly to avoid sinking.

Reason : Due to absence of air bladder.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

33) How many statement are not correct about frog.

1. Frog is a poikilotherms.
2. Frog do not show sexual dimorphisim.
3. External ear is absent in frog.
4. Forelimbs and hindlimbs of frog have 5 digit and 4 digits respectively.

(1) Two
(2) One
(3) Three
(4) Four
34) Match the column-I with column-II

Column-I Column-II

(A) Hibernation (i) Winter sleep

The ability to change

the colour to hide
(B) Camouflage (ii)
them from their
enemies

(C) Poikilotherm (iii) Cold blooded

(D) Aestivation (iv) Summer sleep

(1) A–iv B–ii C–iii D-i

(2) A–i B–ii C–iv D-iii

(3) A–i B–ii C–iii D-iv

(4) A–i B–iii C–iv D-ii

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

35) Which structure arise from testis and opens to bidder’s canal?

(1) Sperm
(2) Vasa efferentia
(3) Seminal vesicle
(4) Phallomere

SECTION-B

1) Select the incorrect statement w.r.t frog :-

(1) On land, frog respire only through lungs

(2) Digestion in frog begins in stomach
(3) During summer sleep frog respire through skin
(4) Tadpole larva has gills for respiration.

2) Sinus venosus occurs on

(1) Dorsal side of heart and contain mixed blood

(2) Ventral side of heart and contain deoxygenated blood
(3) Dorsal side of heart and contain deoxygenated blood
(4) Ventral side of heart and contain mixed blood
3) Tadpole larva of frog excretes ....(a).... while adult frog excretes ....(b)...., a and b in given
statement are -

(1) (a) Ammonia ; (b) Ammonia

(2) (a) Ammonia ; (b) Urea
(3) (a) Urea ; (b) Uric acid
(4) (a) NH3 ; (b) Guanine

4) Compared to those of humans, the erythrocytes in frog are

(1) Nucleated and without haemoglobin

(2) Without nucleus but with haemoglobin
(3) Nucleated and with haemoglobin
(4) Very much smaller and fewer

5) During breeding season, nuptial pad is present on

(1) Last digit of male frog

(2) Last digit of female frog
(3) First digit of female frog
(4) First digit of male frog

6) For female frog, which of the following is false :-

(i) One pair of ovaries is situated near kidney
(ii) Ovary has functional connection with kidney
(iii) Oviduct & ureter open separately in cloaca
(iv) A female frog can be lay 2500-3000 ova at a time

(1) Only iii

(2) Only ii
(3) iii & iv
(4) i, ii & iii

7) Recognise the figure and find out the correct matching

(1) a-cloaca, b-ovary, d-oviduct, c-urinary bladder

(2) c-cloaca, a-ovary, b-oviduct, d-urinary bladder
(3) b-cloaca, d-ovary, c-oviduct, a-urinary bladder
(4) d-cloaca, c-ovary, a-oviduct, b-urinary bladder

8) In the given examples, how many animals are of class-reptilia :

Corvus, Columba, Pteropus, Macropus, Calotes, Hemidactylus, Psittacula, Struthio and Macaca

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) Two

9) Complete the analogy.

Crocodilus : Crocodile :: Testudo : _______.

(1) Tortoise
(2) Turtle
(3) Lancelet
(4) Vulture

10)

Match the List-I and List-2 :

List-1 List-2

(i) Columba (a) Parrot

(ii) Psittacula (b) Vulture

(iii) Neophron (c) Pigeon

(iv) Aptenodytes (d) Penguin

(1) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
(2) i-a, ii-b, iii-d, iv-c
(3) i-c, ii-a, iii-b, iv-d
(4) i-d, ii-a, iii-b, iv-c

11) Select the incorrect statements for Aves.

(a) Oil glands present at the base of the beak.
(b) Fertilisation is always internal.
(c) Forelimbs and Hindlimbs modified in wings.
(d) Endoskeleton is fully ossified.

(1) (a) and (b)

(2) (a) and (c)
(3) (b) and (c)
(4) (c) and (d)
12)

All mammals, without any exception, are characterised by :-

(1) They all are viviparous.

(2) Respiration is done by gill-slits & lungs.
(3) The all are poikilothermal.
(4) A four chambered heart and milk producing glands.

13) Identify the following figures A, B and C animals are respectively :

(1) Pteropus, Macropus, Balaenoptera

(2) Balaenoptera, Macropus, Pteropus
(3) Macropus, Pteropus, Balaenoptera
(4) Pteropus, Balaenoptera, Macropus

14) The following features belong to which class?

(i) Body is divisible into head and trunks, tail may be present in some.
(ii) Skin is moist and act as respiratory organ.
(iii) External skeleton is absent.
(iv) Eye have eyelids.

(1) Cyclostomata
(2) Amphibia
(3) Reptilia
(4) Osteichthyes

15) Identify the correct position of animal and its character :

Position of
Character
animal

Tympanum
(1) Reptilia
represents ear

(2) Amphibia Skin without scales

(3) Lacertilia Eyelids movable

(4) Urodela Cloaca absent

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 4 3 3 3 4 1 1 3 3 4 4 4 3 1 1 2 3 2 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 2 2 3 2 3 1 2 2 1 3 3 4 1 1 2

SECTION-B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 4 2 1 1 2 3 1 2 3 2 3 2 1 2 1

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 2 4 2 1 1 2 2 4 2 2 4 4 3 4 1 2 1 4 3 1
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 1 2 3 2 3 1 2 1 2 4 1 4 3 2

SECTION-B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 4 4 3 4 3 4 2 3 3 4 3 2 4 2 4

BOTANY

SECTION-A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 3 4 1 2 4 4 4 1 4 1 2 4 3 1 2 1 3 2 1 2
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 1 3 3 2 3 4 1 2 3 3 2 1 2 1 3

SECTION-B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 3 1 4 3 4 4 3 2 1 1 2 2 1 4

ZOOLOGY
 SECTION-A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 4 2 3 3 2 3 4 1 2 2 2 2 1 4 3 1 4 3 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 2 2 2 3 1 3 1 1 2 1 4 1 1 3 2

SECTION-B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 1 3 2 3 4 2 2 4 1 3 2 4 3 2 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

2)

3) (South-West)
tanθ = 1; θ = 45°

4)

5)

=
Alternative method

6) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 76
Vm = 10 km/hr
Vr = –V km/hr
=
Using triangle law of addition,
 tan 30° =

⇒ = ⇒ = Km/hr
So,
=

7)

Vr/g = 2Vm/g = 20 km/hr

8)

9)

=
 11)

∵ sinθ =
θ = 30°

So, angle from bank at which use should

swim = 90° – 30° = 60°

13)

A passenger getting down from a moving bus, falls in the direction of the motion of the bus. This is
because his feet come to rest on touching the ground and the remaining body continues to move due
to inertia of motion.

14)

15)

Mg – Fb = ...(1)
If m is removed then
 Fb – (M – m)g = (M – m)a ...(2)
adding (1) and (2) we have

m=

17)

20)

N0 = 240

22)

= = 24N

23)

Force by water jet on wall

= ρav2

= (103) (2)2
= 1 Newton

24)
Favg =

29)

Required N = 3 × a = 3 × 12 / 6

30)

1g – T = 1a

⇒T=g–a=g–

31)
T = 2a = 2 × 1.7
T = 3.4 N

34)

TA = TC sin45° ...(1)
TB = TC cos45° ...(2)
by eq (1) & (2)
TB = TA = 100g N

35)
 40)

aA = g/2
aB = g

41)

2F – (15 + 60) g = 0
2F = 75 g

F= = 375 N

42)

Since rod is rigid, its length can’t increase.

∴ velocity of approach of A and B point of rod is zero.
⇒ u sin θ – v cos θ = 0
⇒ v = u tan θ

43)

Here, Urel = 0, because lift is moving, and relative velocity of coin w.r.t. lift is zero.
arel = +g = 9.8 m/s2, t = ?, srel = 2.45 m

Srel = Urelt + arelt2

∴ 2.45 = 0 + × 9.8t2 = 4.9t2

t2 = = ⇒t= sec.

45) =

= 1 ⇒ θ = 45°
Direction → N – E.
 46) Time to meet the cars : t =
Distance travelled by bird in this time

s = v3t =

47)

Angle with vertical

49)
Let speed of boat is v0

0
A → B, ⇒ t1(v + vR) = x ...(i)

0
B → A, ⇒ t2(v – vR) = x ...(ii)
From eq. (i) and (ii)
t1v0 + t1vR = t2v0 – t2vR
v0[t2 – t1] = vR[t2 + t1]

CHEMISTRY

51)
lower priomity group is just adjacent to dash so, just change the configuration (that you are
getting)
 54) Fact

56) Diasteromers → Not mirror images of each other.

60)
SI ⇒ 2n
⇒ 22 ⇒ 4

62)

Dihedral angle (D.A.) of least stable conformer of ethane = 0°

63)

(P) → Optically inactive but no chiral carbon.

(Q) → No POS, No COS, so optically active.
(R) → Having disimilar chiral C and have POS.

69)

i=1+ [α = 1]

i= = [n = 4 for tetramer]
= 0.25

70)

(1) Sucrose will give minimum value of ΔP.

0
ΔP = P – Ps
0
Ps = P – ΔP is maximum.
 77)

Reaction is :-
2KI + HgI2 → K2[HgI4]
Thus there is a decrease in number of solute particles due to formation of complex.
& = i × Kf × m

m ↓ ses → DTf ↓ses Tf ↓ses.

81)

NCERT (2021-2022) edition chemical equilibrium, Pg#205

83)

n= = 3, α = 1

D – d = 2d

D = 3d ⇒ =3

84) NCERT-XI, Pg # 205, 7.6.1

88)

–F due to H-bonding with –OH group.

93)
= 0.1

95) Value of K depends only on temperature

BOTANY

101)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 38

106) NCERT Page No. 35,36

107)

NCERT Pg. # 36

108)
NCERT XI, pg.# 38

109) NCERT XI Page # 38

114)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 38 1st para

117) NCERT-XI, Pg # 36

119) NCERT-XI, Page # 39

121) (A) and (C) are correct.

123)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 36

130)

NCERT Pg.#30

131)

NCERT Pg.#30

132)

NCERT XI Pg.#39

133)

NCERT XI Pg.#33

135)

NCERT Pg. No.# 68 (H/E)

137)

NCERT Pg # 71

138)

NCERT Pg. # 66

ZOOLOGY

153)
NCERT XI, Pg. # 53

154)

NCERT, Pg # 44

155)

NCERT XI, Page # 53 last para

157)

NCERT Pg. # 53

162)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 54

165)

In Mollusca file rasping organ is present for feeding called radula.

Ex. Aplysia (Sea hare)

167)

NCERT Pg. # 54

170)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 56

173)

174) NCERT # Pg. 55

176)

NCERT Pg # 56

177)

NCERT Pg. # 47

181)

Carcharodon (Great white shark) – It is Chondrichthyes.

183)
NCERT-XI Pg. # 116

186)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 117

191)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 83

194)

NCERT Reference:
Zoology-XI Page No.-58

195) NCERT, Pg # 50

196)

NCERT, Pg # 49,50

197)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 59 (E/H)

198)

NCERT-XI, Pg # 60