25-08-2025

2001CMD303035250003 MD

PHYSICS

1) A particle moved from position to position under the action of

force N. The work done is :-

(1) 10 J
(2) 100 J
(3) 0.01 J
(4) 1 J

2) A block of mass is kept on a rough horizontal plane. Friction coefficient is μ = 0.75. The
work done by minimum force required to drag the block along the plane by a distance 5 m, is :-

(1) 8 J
(2) 4 J
(3) 2 J
(4) 6 J

3) A force = (3x2 + 2x – 7) N acts on a 2 kg body as a result of which the body gets displaced from
x = 0 to x = 5m. The work done by the force will be –

(1) 35 J
(2) 70 J
(3) 115 J
(4) 270 J

4) A uniform chain of length L and mass M is lying on a smooth table and of its length is hanging
down over the edge of the table. If g is the acceleration due to gravity, the work done to pull the
hanging part on the table is :-

(1) MgL

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) A position dependent force F acting on a particle and its force-position curve is shown in the
figure. Work done on the particle, when its displacement 0 to 5 m is :-

(1) 35 J
(2) 25 J
(3) 15 J
(4) 5 J

6) If the momentum of a body is increased by 200 % then increase in its kinetic energy will be :-

(1) 200%
(2) 600%
(3) 800%
(4) 100%

7) The graph between and is

EK = kinetic energy and p = momentum) –

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) A particle is released from rest at origin. It moves under the influence of potential energy U(x) =
x2 – 3x. Its kinetic energy at x = 2 is

(1) 2 J
(2) 1.5 J
(3) 1 J
(4) Zero
9) A stick of mass m and length ℓ is pivoted at one end is displaced upward through an angle θ from

lowest position. The increase in potential energy is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) The spring is stretched by 2cm from natural length to increase its potential energy to 25J. How
much more it must be stretched to further increase its potential energy by 75J.

(1) 4 cm
(2) 3 cm
(3) 2 cm
(4) 8 cm

11) Two cars are travelling towards each other at speed of 20 m s–1 each. When the cars are 300 m
apart, both the drivers apply brakes and the cars retard at the rate of 2 m s–2. The distance between
them when they come to rest is:

(1) 200m
(2) 50m
(3) 100m
(4) 25m

12) Two perpendicular rail tracks have two trains A & B respectively. Train A moves towards north
with a speed of 54 km h–1 and train B moves towards west with a speed of 72 km h–1 . Assume that
both trains start from same point. Calculate the Relative velocity of A with respect to B.

(1) 72 km/h due east

(2) 90 km/h at 37°N of E
(3) 95 km/h
(4) None of these

13) Let and represent the positions of particles 1 and 2, respectively

as functions of time t; and are in metre and t is in second. The relative speed of the two
particles at the instant t =1 s, will be :

(1) 1 m/s
(2)
(3)
(4)

14) A man is walking due to east at the rate of 2 kmh–1. The rain appears to him to come down
vertically at the rate of 2 kmh–1. The actual velocity and direction of rainfall with the vertical
respectively are :

(1)

(2)

(3) 2 kmh–1, 0°
(4) 1 kmh–1, 90°

15) Ship A is travelling with a velocity of 5 kmh–1 due east. The second ship is heading 30° east of
north. What should be the speed of second ship if it is to remain always due north with respect to the
first ship?

(1) 10 kmh–1
(2) 9 kmh–1
(3) 8 kmh–1
(4) 7 kmh–1

16) A boat move relative to still water with a velocity which is n times the river flow velocity. At what
angle to the stream direction must be boat move to cross the river along shortest path

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) A ship A is moving Westwards with a speed of 10 kmph and a ship B 100 km South of A, is
moving Northwards with a speed of 10 kmph. The time after which the distance between them
becomes the shortest is:

(1) 0 h
(2) 5 h
(3)
(4)

18) A man holding a flag is running in north-east direction with speed 10 m/s. Wind is blowing in
east direction with speed m/s. Find the direction in which flag will flutter.
(1) South
(2) North
(3) East
(4) West

19) Two particles A and B, move with constant velocities and . At the initial moment their
position vector are and respectively. The condition for particles A and B for their collision is:

(1)
(2)
(3)

(4)

20) Two balls are thrown simultaneously one horizontally and other at an angle 37 degree from
horizontal from top of two towers as shown in figure. Find distance between two towers (d) , if

collision occurs in mid air.

(1) 50 m
(2) 20 m
(3) 40 m
(4) 60 m

21)

If I stand at rest on a horizontal floor, it pushes upwards on my feet with a force equal to my weight,
Mg, where M is my mass. Which of the following is Newton's third-law pair to this upward force on
my feet?

(1) The gravitational force that the earth exerts on my body.

(2) The gravitational force that my body exerts on earth.
(3) The normal force that my feet exert on the floor.
(4) The frictional force that my feet exert on the floor.

22) The momentum of a body in two perpendicular direction at any time 't' are given by Px = 2t2 + 6

and . The force acting on the body at t = 2 sec, is :-

(1) 5 units
(2) 2 units
(3) 10 unit
(4) none

23) A machine gun mounted on a 2000 kg car on a horizontal frictionless surface fires 10 bullets per
second. If 10 g be the mass of each bullet and 500 ms–1 the velocity of each bullet, then the
acceleration of the car will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) A stream of a liquid of density ρ flowing horizontally with a speed v gushes out of a tube of
radius r and hits at a vertically wall nearly normally. Assuming that the liquid does not rebound from
the wall, the force exerted on the wall by the impact of liquid is given by-

(1) πr ρv
(2) πr ρv2
(3) πr2 ρv
(4) πr2 ρv2

25) For the given system when the string is cut then accelerations of the block A and B will be :-

(1) 2g, 0
(2) 0, 2g
(3) g, 0
(4) 0, g

26) Two blocks of masses M1 and M2 are connected to each other through a light spring as shown in
figure. If we push mass M1 with force F and cause acceleration a1 in mass M1, what will be the
magnitude of acceleration in M2?

(1) F/M2
(2) F/(M1 + M2)
(3) a1
(4) (F – M1a1)/M2

27) In the given figure, what is the reading of the spring balance ?

(1) 10 N
(2) 20 N
(3) 5 N
(4) zero

28) Two masses of 10 kg and 20 kg respectively are connected by a massless spring as shown in
figure. A force of 200 N acts on the 20 kg mass. At the instant when the 10 kg mass has an

acceleration of 12 ms–2, the acceleration of the 20 kg mass is :-

(1) 2 m s–2
(2) 4 m s–2
(3) 10 m s–2
(4) 20 m s–2

29) Two objects A and B of masses 2 kg and 4 kg are connected by a uniform rope of mass 4 kg as
shown in the diagram. A force of magnitude 80 N acts on A in vertically upward direction. Tension at

mid point of the rope is (g = 10 m/s2) :-

(1) 32 N
(2) 40 N
(3) 42 N
(4) 48 N

30) Two blocks masses m1 = 6kg and m2 = 4kg are connected with the massless string and the pulley
are initially lying on the ground as shown in the figure. A force F = 100 N is applied on the pulley if

the acceleration of the blocks are a1 and a2 respectively then:

(1) m1 will snap but not m2

(2) m2 will snap but not m1
(3) both will snap simultaneously
(4) None of these

31) A balloon with m is descending down with an acceleration a (where a < g). How much
mass should be removed from it so that it starts moving up with an acceleration a?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) A 0.5 kg ball moving with a speed of 12 m/s strikes a hard wall at an angle of 30° with the wall.
It is reflected with the same speed and at the same angle. If the ball is in contact with the wall for
0.25 seconds, the average force acting on the wall is :-

(1) 48 N
(2) 24 N
(3) 12 N
(4) 96 N

33) Three forces acting on a body are shown in the figure. To have the resultant force only along the

y-direction, the magnitude of the minimum additional force needed is :

(1) 0.5 N
(2) 1.5 N

(3)
N
(4) N

34) Relation between accelerations of A and B in the given figure is :-

(1) aA = aB
(2) 2aA = aB
(3) aA = 2aB
(4) Masses of blocks are required.

35) A block is dragged on a smooth plane with the help of a rope which moves with a velocity v as
shown in figure. The horizontal velocity of the block is :

(1) v

(2)

(3) v sinθ

(4)

36) A ball is suspended by a thread from the ceiling of a tram car. The brakes are applied and the
speed of the car changes uniformly from 36 km h–1 to zero in 5s. The angle by which the ball deviates
from the vertical is (g=10 m s–2)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) Find the force applied to the system if M1 and M2 present at rest w.r.t. "M" :-

(1) F=(M1 + M2 + M)

(2)
F=(M1 + M2 + M)
F = (M1 + M2 + M)
(3)

(4) None of these

38) A system of mass connected by string is placed on rough surface having μ = 0.1 and a force F =

3N is exerted as shown : - then T1, T2 and will be : -

(1) 2 N, 0 N, 0 N
(2) 2 N, 0 N, 2 N
(3) 3 N, 0 N, 3 N
(4) none

39) Surface is parabolic given by y = x2 and . Then block will start slipping when :

(1) x = 1/8
(2) x = 1/16
(3) x = 1/32
(4) x = 1/64

40) The upper half of an inclined plane of inclination θ is perfectly smooth while the lower half is
rough. A body starting from the rest at top comes back to rest at the bottom if the coefficient of
friction for the lower half is given by :

(1) μ = sinθ
(2) μ = cotθ
(3) μ = 2cosθ
(4) μ = 2tanθ

41) The time taken by an object to slide down 45° rough inclined plane is n times as it takes to
slide down a perfectly smooth 45° incline plane of same length. The coefficient of kinetic friction
between the object and the incline plane is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) Find the acceleration of two blocks :-

2 2
(1) aA = 5m/sec aB = 5 m/sec
2 2
(2) aA = 5m/sec aB = 2.5 m/sec
 2 2
(3) aA = 2.5 m/sec aB = 2.5 m/sec
2 2
(4) aA = 1m/sec aB = 1 m/sec

43) A force of 100 N is acting on the block as shown. Then dfind friction force on the block-

(1) 24 N
(2) 20 N
(3) 10 N
(4) 50 N

44) A block of mass 10 kg is in contact with a cart. If the coefficient of static friction is μ = 0.5, then

the minimum acceleration of cart, that will prevent falling of block, is

(1) 5 m/s2
(2) 10 m/s2
(3) 20 m/s2
(4) 15 m/s2

45) A conveyor belt is moving at a constant speed of 2m/s. A box is gently dropped on it. The
coefficient of friction between them is µ= 0.5. The distance that the box will move relative to belt
before coming to rest on it taking g = 10 ms–2, is :

(1) 1.2 m
(2) 0.6 m
(3) Zero
(4) 0.4 m

CHEMISTRY

1)

The number of geometrical isomers in the following compound is :-

C6H5–CH=CH–CH=CH–CH=CH–C6H5
(1) 2
(2) 6
(3) 4
(4) 8

2) In the compound configuration is :-

(1) 2R, 3R
(2) 2R, 3S
(3) 2S, 3R
(4) 2S, 3S

3) Which of the following not show geometrical Isomerism :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) Which of the following statement is true ?

(1)
&
µtrans > µcis

(2)

& are enantiomers

(3)
trans configuration

(4)
cis configuration

5) IUPAC name of the compound :-

(1) (3Z–5E) Hepta-1,3,5-triene
(2) (3E–5Z) Hepta-1,3,5-triene
(3) (3Z–5Z) Hepta-1,3,5-triene
(4) (3E–5E) Hepta-1,3,5-triene

6) Which compound will show geometrical isomer:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) Which of the following is/are meso compounds ?

(1) A,B,C
(2) A,B
(3) A,C
(4) B,C

8) Arrange the groups according to CIP rule :-

(I) –OH

(II)
(III) –COOH
(IV) –CH2–OH

(1) IV > III > I > II

(2) III > I > II > IV
(3) I > III > IV > II
(4) I > III > II > IV

9)

Which conformer of the given compound is most stable (rotation about C–C bond)
HO–CH2–CH2–OH
(1) Anti-staggered
(2) Gauche
(3) Fully eclipsed
(4) Partially eclipsed

10) Which of the following compounds will show geometrical isomerism ?

(1) 2-pentyne
(2) 2-pentene
(3) 2-methyl propene
(4) 2-Methyl-2-butane

11) Which will from geometrical isomers ?

(1)

(2) CH3CH = N—OH

(3)

(4) All of these

12) Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A) :- Cis form of alkene is found to be more polar than the trans form
Reason (R) :- Dipole moment of trans isomer of 2-butene is zero.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.

13)

(1) Enantiomers
(2) Diasteromers
(3) Identical
(4) Geometrical isomers
14) If angle of rotation of PPL by is +60° then angle of rotation of PPL by

is -----

(1) +60°
(2) –60°
(3) 0°
(4) +120°

15) Which has minimum angle strain ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) Which is optically active ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17)

Find out relation between I and II :-

(1) enantiomers
(2) diastereomers
(3) homomers
(4) structural isomers

18) Which is true for the following isomeric forms I & II respectively :

Dipole Boiling Melting

Stability
moment point point
(1) I > II I > II II > I I > II
(2) II > I II > I II > I II > I
(3) I > II I > II I > II I > II
(4) II > I II > I I > II I > II
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

19) Assertion :– Meso tartaric acid is optically inactive.

Reason :– Its optically inactivity is due to external compensation.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

20) If angle of rotation of is +62° then angle of rotation of is :-

(1) 0°
(2) +124°
(3) –62°
(4) Nothing can be said
21) Number of chiral centre in the given compound is

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

22) Find out the correct statement :-

(1) In all the conformation bond angle and bond length remain same
(2) Melting point depends on packing efficiency
(3) If molecule rotate PPL in any direction, then it is considered as optically active
(4) All of these

23) Maximum potential energy is associated with which of the following conformers of n-butane -

(1) Anti
(2) Gauche
(3) Fully eclipsed
(4) Eclipsed

24) Elevation in boiling point was 0.52 °C when 6 g of a compound X was dissolved in 100 g of
water. Molecular weight of X is : (Kb for water = 0.52 K mol–1)

(1) 120
(2) 60
(3) 100
(4) 342

25) Which of the following solutions has the highest normality :-

(1) 8 g of KOH per litre

(2) 1 N phosphoric acid
(3) 6 g of NaOH per 100 mL
(4) 0.5 M H2SO4

26) A solution of x moles of sucrose in 100 g of water freezes at – 0.2°C. Calculate the amount of ice
separate out when it is cooled upto –0.25°C :-

(1) 18 g
(2) 20 g
(3) 25 g
(4) 23 g
27) The Van't Hoff factor for BaCl2 at 0.01M concentration is 1.98. The percentage dissociation of
BaCl2 at this concentration is –

(1) 49
(2) 69
(3) 89
(4) 98

28) At 40°C, the vapour pressure (in torr) of methyl alcohol (A) and ethyl alcohol (B) solution is
represented by : P = 120 XA + 138; where XA is mole fraction of methyl alchol. The value of

and are:

(1) 138, 258

(2) 258, 138
(3) 120, 138
(4) 138, 125

29) 150mL of C2H5OH (density = 0.78 g/ml) is diluted to one litre by adding water. Molality of the
solution is –

(1) 1.54
(2) 11.7
(3) 2.99
(4) 29.9

30) What is the osmotic pressure of the solution obtained by mixing 300 cm3 of 0.6% w/v solution of
urea with 300 cm3 3.42% w/v solution of sucrose at 20°C ?

(1) 5 atm
(2) 5.2 atm
(3) 2.4 atm
(4) 4.5 atm

31) The following is a graph plotted between the vapour pressures of two volatile liquids against

their respective mole fractions :-

(1) When XA = 1 then P = P°A

(2) When XB = 1 then P < P°A
(3) When XA = 1 then P < P°B
(4) Both (1) and (3)

32) 6.8 g H2O2 is dissolved in 224 mL solution. This solution will be labelled as :-

(1) 0.224 V
(2) 20 V
(3) 5 V
(4) 10 V

33) The molarity of a solution made by mixing 50 mL of conc. H2SO4 (36 N) with 50 mL. of water, is :

(1) 36 M
(2) 18 M
(3) 9 M
(4) 6 M

34) When 20 g of naphthoic acid (C11H8O2) is dissolved in 50g of benenze (Kf = 1.72 K kg mol–1), then
freezing point depression of 2K is observed. The van't Haff factor (i) is :

(1) 0.5
(2) 1.0
(3) 2.0
(4) 3.0

35) For which reaction will Kp = Kc?

(1) 2CO(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2CO2(g)

(2) H2(g) + Br2(g) ⇌ 2HBr(g)
(3) C(s) + 2H2O(g) ⇌ 2H2(g) + CO2(g)
(4) PCl5(g) ⇌ PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)

36) For the gas phase reaction;

ΔH = – 32.7 kcal carried out in a closed vessel, the number of equilibrium moles of C2H4 can be
increased by :

(1) Increasing temperature

(2) Decreasing pressure
(3) Removing some amount of H2
(4) All of these

37) In the system, AB(s) A(g) + B(g) doubling the quantity of AB(s) would :-

(1) increase the amount of A to double its value

(2) increase the amount of B to double its value
(3) increase the amounts of both A and B to double their values
(4) cause no change in the amounts of A and B

38) Which of the following is an example of heterogeneous equilibrium ?

(1) H2(g) + I2(g) ⇌ 2HI(g)

(2) N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g)
(3) CaCO3(s) ⇌ CaO(s) + CO2(g)
(4) N2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2NO(g)

39) Assertion : - The catalyst does not alter the equilibrium constant.
Reason : - Because for the catalysed reaction and uncatalysed reaction remains same and
equilibrium constant depends of .

(1) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are correct and R is not correct explanation of A.
(3) A is correct but R is wrong.
(4) A and R both are wrong.

40) At constant temperature, Kp for the equilibrium is expressed by ,

where P = pressure, x = extent of decomposition. Which of the following statements is true?

(1) Kp increases with increase of P

(2) Kp increases with increase of x
(3) Kp remains constant with change in P and x
(4) Kp increases with decrease of x

41) At 300 K A(g) 2B(g) + C(g) at equilibrium PA, PB & PC respectively are 1, 2 and 3 atm then KC for
reaction is :-

(1)

(2)

(3) 24
(4) 48

42) A(g) + 2B(g) 2C(g) + D(g)

At 250°C, KC = 4. If reaction is started with 4 mol A, 2 mol B, 3 mol C and 1.5 mol D in a 1L
container. What would happen ?

(1) Forward reaction

(2) Backward reaction
(3) System is at equilibrium
(4) Cannot be predicted

43) The equilibrium constant (Kc) for the reaction,

is equal to :

(1)

(2)

(3) [H2O]

(4)

44) For a reaction; , the initial concentration of A and B are equal but the equilibrium
concentration of C is twice that of equilibrium concentration of A. Then KC is :

(1) 4
(2) 9
(3) 1/4
(4) 1/9

45) Some gaseous equillibrium are following :-

CO + H2O CO2 + H2

2CO + O2 2CO2

2H2 + O2 2H2O
then find out the relation between equillibrium constants :-

(1) K = K1K2
2
(2) K = (K1K2)
–1/2
(3) K = (K1 K2)
1/2
(4) K = (K1/K2)

BIOLOGY

1)

Find out the correct match from the following table :-

Column-I Column-II Column-III

(i) Tap roots Formed by the direct elongation of radicle Sugarcane

(ii) Fibrous roots Originate from the base of the stem Wheat

(iii) Adventitious roots Arise from parts of the plant other than the radicle Sweet potato
(1) i only
(2) i and ii
(3) iii only
(4) ii and iii

2) Select the correct match from followings ?

(1) Mustard-Fibrous root

(2) Wheat-Butress root
(3) Mustard-Tap root
(4) Monstera-Fibrous root

3) The thick roots that hang down from the banyan tree are called :-

(1) Butteress roots

(2) Pneumatophores
(3) Prop roots
(4) Stilt roots

4) Tap roots of the following plant are modified to store food.

(1) Sweet potato

(2) Turnip
(3) Rhizopora
(4) Potato

5) Which of the following plant is grown in swampy areas and their roots come out of the ground and
grow vertically upward :-

(1) Oxalis
(2) Banyan tree
(3) Rhizophora and Mangrove
(4) Smilax

6)

Identify the correct match from the columns I, II and III.

Column I Column II Column III

Help
underground
1 (a) (i) in climbing,
stem
cucumber
 Food
Tap
2 (b) (ii) storage,
root
Colocasia

Food
Prop
3 (c) (iii) storage,
root
Turnip

Stem Support,
4 (d) (iv)
tendril banyan

(1) 1 - b - ii, 2 - a - iii, 3 - d - i, 4 - c - iv

(2) 1 - a - iii, 2 - b - ii, 3 - d - iv, 4 - c - i
(3) 1 - b - iii, 2 - a - ii, 3 - c - i, 4 - d - iv
(4) 1 - b - iii, 2 - a - ii, 3 - d - i, 4 - c - iv

7) Match the following column correctly :-

Modification of
Example Function
root

(i) Prop (a) Turnip (p) Mechanical support to branch

(ii) Stilt (b) Rhizophora (q) Storage of food

(iii) Pneumatophore (c) Banyan (r) Respiration

(iv) Napiform (d) Maize (s) Mechanical support to stem

(1) i-c-s, ii-d-p, iii-b-r, iv-a-q
(2) i-c-p, ii-d-s, iii-b-r, iv-a-q
(3) i-a-s, ii-b-r, iii-c-p, iv-d-q
(4) i-d-p, ii-c-q, iii-a-r, iv-b-s

8)
How many have underground stem in the following?

Potato, Ginger, Turmeric, Zaminkand, Sweet potato and onion.

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

9) In which plant a slender lateral branch arises from the base of main axis and after growing
aerially for some time arch downwards to touch the ground?

(1) Banana
(2) Pistia
(3) Jasmine
(4) Grass

10) Cells from which of the following regions of root, form root hairs?

(1) Region of elongation

(2) Region of maturation
(3) Region of meristematic activity
(4) Root cap

11) Read the following five statements (A–E) and answer as asked next to them
(A) Sheathing leaf base is found in monocotyledons
(B) In some leguminous plants the leaf base may become swollen, which is called the pulvinus.
(C) A bud is present in the axil of leaflets of the compound leaf.
(D) Stem is highly reduced in Bulb.
(E) Whorled phyllotaxy is found in Alstonia.
How many of the above statements are correct?

(1) Four
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three

12) Assertion (A) : The alternate type of phyllotaxy is the arrangment of leaves in which a single
leaf arises at each node of stem in alternate manner.
Reason (R) : Alternate types of phyllotaxy is found in Calotropis and Mustard.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) and (R) both incorrect
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

13) Assertion : In majority of dicotyledonous plants, the direct elongation of the radicle leads to the
formation of primary root.
Reason : The primary root and it's branches constitute the tap root system.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

14) Assertion : In hypogynous condition the ovary is superior.

Reason : In this condition, gynoecium occupies the highest position while the other part are
situated below it.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

15) In mustard

(1) Placentation is free central type

(2) Placenta is axial in position
(3) Ovary has basal placentation
(4) Ovary becomes two-chambered due to formation of false septum

16) Stems of Euphorbia are [NCERT XI-(I)-68,69]

(1) Flattened and carry out photosynthesis

(2) Cylindrical and non-photosynthetic
(3) Flattened and bear thorns
(4) Cylindrical and photosynthetic

17) Which among the following is not related to modification of leaves? [NCERT XI-(I)-68,71]

(1) Leaves are converted into tendrils for climbing in grapevines

(2) Petioles become green and photosynthetic in Australian Acacia
(3) Fleshy leaves in garlic store food
(4) Spines of cacti are modified leaves

18) Select the correct match.

Axile
(1) - Primrose
placentation

Epiphyllous
(2) - Lily
stamen

Free central
(3) - Lemon
placentation
 Hypogynous
(4) - Plum
flower
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

19) Identify the following diagram :-

(1) Racemose inflorescence

(2) Hypanthodium inflorescence
(3) Catkin inflorescence
(4) Cymose inflorescence

20) In given diagram identify the A, B, C, D, E

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

(E)

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)

(1) Basal Axile Free central Parietal Marginal

(2) Parietal Marginal Free central Axile Basal

(3) Marginal Axile Parietal Free central Basal

(4) Basal Parietal Axile Marginal Free central

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

21) Assertion :- In some xerophytic plants stem becomes green, flat, leaf like and leaves are
modified into spines.
Reason :- In xerophytic areas rate of transpiration is high, so plants develop various adaptations to
minimize transpiration.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

22) If the filaments are fused in a single group the condition is

(1) Monoadelphous
(2) Polyadelphous
(3) Both 1 & 2
(4) Diadelphous

23) In unilocular ovary with a single ovule the placentation is :

(1) Axile
(2) Marginal
(3) Basal
(4) Free Central

24) Aestivation of petals in the flower of cotton is correctly shown in :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
25) Whorled, simple leaves with reticulate venation are present in :

(1) Alstonia
(2) Calotropis
(3) Mustard
(4) China Rose

26)

How many plants in the list given below have opposite phyllotaxy ?

China rose, Sunflower, Mustard, Alstonia, Guava, Calotropis and Nerium

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Five
(4) Two

27)

Consider the following statements a-d and select the option which includes all the correct ones :-
(a) A leaf is said to be simple when its lamina is entire or when incised, the incision do not touch mid
rib.
(b) A leaf is said to be compound when the incisions of lamina reach up to the midrib breaking into
number of leaflets.
(c) When the veins runs parallel to each other within a lamina, the venation is parallel.

(d) Leaves in all dicotyledonous plant posses parallel vanation.

(1) Statement a, b, c
(2) Statement b, c, d
(3) Statement c, d
(4) Statement a, c, d

28) Which of the following is incorrect :-

(1) Reticulate venation is characteristic of most dicotyledonous plants

(2) Parallel venation is characteristic of most monocotyledons
(3) In neem pinnately compound leaf is found
(4) In silk cotton pinnately compound leaf is found

29) Find out the correct match from the following table :-

Column-I Column-II Column-III

i Pea Zygomorphic flower Vexillary aestivation

ii Calotropis Whorled phyllotaxy Reticulate venation

iii Pistia Offset Rosette like leaves

(1) (i) only
(2) (i) and (ii)
(3) (i) and (iii)
(4) (iii) only

30) Mango and Coconut is a drup fruits due to :-

(1) Presence of stony hard endocarp

(2) Presence of fleshy soft endocarp
(3) Pericarp differentiated into epicarp, mesocarp, endocarp
(4) Pericarp is not differentiated into epicarrp, mesocarp and endocarp

31) Given figure represent a drupe fruit select the option that correctly identifies A, B, C, D :-

A B C D
(1) Pericarp Epicarp Mesocarp Endocarp
(2) Epicarp Mesocarp Endocarp Seed
(3) Mesocarp Epicarp Endocarp Seed
(4) Epicarp Mesocarp Seed Endocarp
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

32) Assertion : The fruit formed without fertilization is known as parthenocarpic fruit.
Reason : The fruit is characteristic feature of flowering plants.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Assertion and reason are incorrect.

33) Mango fruit is developed from :

(1) Monocarpellary inferior ovary

(2) Monocarpellary superior ovary
(3) Multicarpellary inferior ovary
(4) Multicarpellary superior ovary

34)

Correctly identify labelled structures, in provided figure ?

 a b c d

A Endosperm Scutellum Plumule Coleorhiza

B Aleurone layer Scutellum Coleoptile Radicle

C Fruit wall Embryo Radicle Plumule

D Seed coat Cotyledon Coleoptile Radicle

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

35) Single shield shaped cotyledon of maize seed is called :-

(1) Coleorrhiza
(2) Coleoptile
(3) Scutellum
(4) Epiblast

36) Which one of the following statements is correct ?

(1) A sterile pistil is called a staminode

(2) The seed in grasses is not endospermic
(3) Mango is a parthenocarpic fruit
(4) A proteinaceous aleurone layer is present in maize grain

37) Identify the given figures :-

(1) Salvinia
(2) Ulothrix
(3) Sphagnum
(4) Pinus

38) List some of the plants are given below :

Cedrus, Funaria, Pinus, Cycas, Ginkgo, Pteridium, Adiantum
How many are 'naked seed' bearing plants

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Two
(4) Five

39) Match the classes of pteridophytes with their example given below and choose the correct option

Column – I Column – II

(a) Lycopsida (i) Equisetum

(b) Psilopsida (ii) Dryopteris

(c) Pteropsida (iii) Selaginella

(d) Sphenopsida (iv) Psilotum

(1) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
(2) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
(3) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
(4) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii

40) Read the following statements and choose the correct option :
Statement A: Genera like Selaginella and Salvinia which produce two kinds of spores, macro (large)
and micro (small) spores, are known as heterosporous.
Statement B: The spores in pteridophytes germinate to give rise to inconspicuous, small but
multicellular, free-living, mostly photosynthetic thalloid gametophytes called prothallus.

(1) Both the statements are correct

(2) Both the statements are incorrect
(3) Only statement A is correct
(4) Only statement B is correct

41) Read the following statements- (A) The plant body of bryophytes is less differentiated than that
of algae.
(B) Bryophytes have true roots, stem and leaves.
(C) The main plant body of the bryophyte is haploid.
(D) The sex organs in bryophytes are multicellular.
How many of the above statements are correct?

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Only One
(4) Two

42) Fill in the blanks and choose the correct option

The nucellus is protected by envelops and the composite structure is called an ….. in gymnosperm

(1) Ovule
(2) Ovary
(3) Microsporangium
(4) Strobili

43) A gymnospermic leaf carries 40 chromosomes. The number of chromosomes in its endosperm is
:-

(1) 30
(2) 20
(3) 40
(4) 6

44) If the root cell of a pteridophyte contains 10 chromosomes, then the chromosome number
in embryo, antherozoid and spore mother cell are respectively.

(1) 10, 5, 10
(2) 10, 5, 5
(3) 10, 10, 10
(4) 5, 10, 10

45) A moss, provides peat that have been used as fuel and as packing material for trans-shipment of
living materials :-

(1) Riccia
(2) Sphagnum
(3) Funaria
(4) Selaginella

46) Read the following statement carefully :-

(A) Alveoli are primary sites of exchange of gases.
(B) Trachea has 'c' shape rings which are ventrally incomplete.
(C) Covering of lung are called pleura.
(D) Right lung has 2 lobes and left has 3 lobes.
How many statement is/are not incorrect ?

(1) 2
(2) 1
(3) 3
(4) 4
47) In deoxygenated blood the partial pressure of CO2 and O2 respectively is :-

(1) 40, 45 mm Hg
(2) 45, 40 mm Hg
(3) 40, 40 mm Hg
(4) 95, 40 mm Hg

48) Assertion :- In the alveoli, dissociation of CO2 from carbamino-haemoglobin takes place.
Reason :- In the alveoli is low and is high.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

49) Conducting part of the respiratory system is formed :-

(1) From external nostrils up to the initial bronchioles.

(2) From external nostrils up to the terminal bronchioles.
(3) From external nostrils up to the duct of alveoli
(4) From external nostrils up to the alveoli

50) Match the column and find out the correct answer:-

Column-I (type of WBCs) Column-II (% of total WBCs)

(a) Eosinophils (i) 60-65

(b) Basophils (ii) 6-8

(c) Neutrophils (iii) 0.5-1

(d) Monocytes (iv) 2-3

(e) Lymphocytes (v) 20-25

(1) a - iii, b - iv, c - i, d - ii, e - v
(2) a - iv, b - iii, c - i, d - ii, e - v
(3) a - iv, b - iii, c - ii, d - i, e - v
(4) a - iv, b - i, c - iii, d - v, e - ii

51) Read the following four statements (A-D) :-

(A) Basophil is a granulocyte.
(B) Monocyte is polymorphonuclear WBC.
(C) Platelet is a largest blood cell.
(D) Spleen is called Graveyard of WBC.
How many of the above statements are not incorrect ?

(1) Four
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three

52) Read the following statements and find out the incorrect statement :-

(1) The entire heart is made of cardiac muscles.

(2) A specialised cardiac musculature called the nodal tissue is also distributed in the heart.
(3) The walls of ventricles are much thicker than that of the atria.
(4) Bicuspid valve is present between the atria.

53) Which of the following option matches the correct labeling in this figure

A B C D E

Pulmonary Left Papillary

1 [Link] Purkinje fibre
artery auricle muscle

Pulmonary Interatrial Chordae Interventricular

2 SA node
artery septum tendinae septum

Chordae
3 Aorta SA node [Link] Bundle of His
tendinae

Left Chordae
4 Aorta [Link] Bundle of His
auricle tendinae
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

54) Carbon dioxide is transported from tissue to respiratory surface by -

(1) Plasma and erythrocytes

(2) Plasma only
(3) Erythrocytes only
(4) Erythrocytes and leucocytes

55) Volume of air a person can inspire or expire per minute is -

(1) 2500–3000 ml
(2) 1000–1100 ml
(3) 6000–8000 ml
(4) 1100 – 1200 ml

56) Which sequences is correct to initiate expiration?

I. Relaxation of EICM and return of diaphragm and sternum to their normal position
II. Air expelled from lungs
III. Volume of thorax decreases
IV. Intrapulmonary pressure increases

(1) I, III, IV, II

(2) II, IV, III, I
(3) IV, III, II, I
(4) I, II, III, IV

57) Which of the following statement is correct for transportation of carbon dioxide?

(1) Approximately 5-7 percent of CO2 is transported as carbamino haemoglobin compound

(2) Bulk of CO2 is transported by plasma as bicarbonates.
(3) 20-25% of CO2 is transported being dissolved state in the plasma.
(4) Every 100 ml deoxygenated blood delivers around 20 ml CO2 to alveoli.

58) Which of the following statement is not true ?

(1) The role of oxygen in the regulation of respiration is quite insignificant.

(2) 20-25% CO2 is carried in the form of carbamino Hb
(3) Asthma is caused due to inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles.
(4) Every 100 ml of oxygenated blood carry 10 ml O2 to the tissue.

59) Which of the following is not responsible for Inspiration.

(1) Contraction of diaphragm

(2) Contraction of EICM
(3) Contraction of IICM
(4) Intrapulmanary pressure is less than atmospheric pressure

60) Assertion (A) :- Type ‘O’ blood group individuals are called ‘universal donors’.
Reason (R) :- RBCs of ‘O’ blood group consists both ‘A’ and ‘B’ surface antigen.

(1) Both A & R is incorrect

(2) A is correct but R is incorrect.
(3) Both A & R is correct but R is not correct explanation of A.
(4) Both A & R is correct and R is correct explanation of A.

61) Which of the following statement is wrong for respiration ?

(1) Breathing is a process, in which atmospheric air enters into the body and CO2 is removed out.
(2) Gaseous exchange takes place through alveolar surface.
(3) Transport of gases take place through blood.
(4) Cells utilise N2 and release CO2 for anabolic process.

62) What is the function of pleural fluid ?

(1) reduces friction on the lung surface

(2) protection from external shocks
(3) provide moisture
(4) all of the above

63) Match column I with column II and select the correct option from the codes given below :-

Column-I Column-II
(Plasma protein (Functions)

Defence
A. Fibrinogen (i)
mechanism

Osmotic
B. Globulins (ii)
balance

Coagulation
C Albumins (iii)
of blood
(1) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii)
(2) A-(i), B-(iii), C-(ii)
(3) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(i)
(4) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii)

64)

Oxygen dissociation curve represents

(1) Percent saturation of Hb with CO2

(2) Partial pressure of O2
(3) Percent saturation of Hb with O2
(4) Partial pressure of CO2

65)

Arrange the following in order of increasing volume:

1. Tidal volume
2. Residual volume
3. Expiratory reserve volume
4. Vital capacity

(1) 1 < 2 < 3 < 4

(2) 1 < 4 < 3 < 2
(3) 1 < 3 < 2 < 4
(4) 1 < 4 < 2 < 3

66) An area situated adjacent to the respiratory rhythm centre and highly sensitive to CO2 and H+, It
is :-

(1) Chemo sensitive area

(2) Dorsal respiratory
(3) Pneumotaxic centre
(4) Ventral respiratory group

67) Match the columns :-

Column-I Column-II

a Pharynx i Lid of Larynx

b Larynx ii Air sacs

c Trachea iii Voice box

Common passage for

d Epiglottis iv
food and air

e Alveoli v Wind pipe

(1) a-v, b-iii, c-iv, d-i, e-ii
(2) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-v, e-ii
(3) a-iv, b-iii, c-v, d-i, e-ii
(4) a-ii, b-iii, c-v, d-i, e-iv

68) Neural signal from which centre can reduce the duration of inspiration is:

(1) Chemosensitive area

(2) Respiratory thythm centre
(3) Pneumotaxic centre
(4) Receptors associated with aortic arch and carotid artery

69) Find out the value of A, B, C and D in the above figure.

(1) A = 40 mmHg, B = 95 mmHg, C = 40 mmHg, D = 45 mmHg

(2) A = 45 mmHg, B = 40 mmHg, C = 104 mmHg, D = 45 mmHg
(3) A = 95 mmHg, B = 45 mmHg, C = 40 mmHg, D = 45 mmHg
(4) A = 40 mmHg, B = 95 mmHg, C = 45 mmHg, D = 40 mmHg

70) Blood carries CO2 mainly in which form ?

(1) HbCO2
(2) Plasma dissolve
(3) NaHCO3
(4) HbCO2 and carbon monoxide

71) In the given table choose the correct value of partial pressure :-

Respiratory Deoxygenated Oxygenated

Alveoli Tissue
gas blood blood

O2 104 b 95 d

CO2 a 45 c 45

a b c d

(1) 40 40 40 40

(2) 45 45 95 45

(3) 45 40 45 95

(4) 40 95 40 45
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

72) Which of the following cannot act as stimulus for excitation of central chemoreceptors?

(1) Fall in pO2 in arterial blood

(2) Increase in pCO2
(3) Fall in pH
(4) Increase in H+ ion concentration

73)

Identify the correct and incorrect match about respiratory volume and capacities and marks the
correct answer.
(i) Inspiratory capacity (IC) = Tidal Volume + Residual Volume
(ii) Vital Capacity (VC) = Tidal Volume (TV) + Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV) + Expiratory
Reserve Volume (ERV)
(iii) Residual Volume (RV) = Vital Capacity (VC) – Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV)
(iv) Tidal Volume (TV) = Inspiratory Capacity (IC) – Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV)

(1) (i) Incorrect, (ii) Incorrect, (iii) Incorrect, (iv) Correct

(2) (i) Incorrect, (ii) Correct, (iii) Incorrect, (iv) Correct
(3) (i) Correct, (ii) Correct, (iii) Incorrect, (iv) Correct
(4) (i) Correct, (ii) Incorrect, (iii) Correct, (iv) Inorrect

74) What happens when diaphragm get contract ?

(1) Volume of thoracic cavity decreases at dorsoventral axis

(2) Volume of thoracic cavity increases at anteroposterior axis
(3) Volume of thoracic cavity increases at dorsoventral axis
(4) Volume of thoracic cavity decreases at anteroposterior axis

75) Assertion : Rh group should also be matched before blood transfusions.

Reason : An Rh – Ve person, If exposed to Rh + Ve blood, will form specific antibodies against, Rh
antigens.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

76) Assertion (A) : Role of oxygen in regulation of breathing is quite insignificant.

Reason (R) : Chemosensitive receptors are more sensitive to pCO2 and H+ ions than pO2.

(1) Both assertion & reason are true & the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion & reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both assertion & reason are false.

77) In extreme emergency, which group of blood can be transfused safely without cross matching?

(1) A and Rh–ve

(2) O and Rh–ve
(3) A and Rh+ve
(4) O and Rh+ve

78) Read the following statements (A-D) :-

A. RBCs are the most abundant of all the cells in blood
B. A healthy adult man has on an average 5 Billions to 5.5 Billions of RBCs mm–3 of blood
C. RBCs are formed in liver in the adults.
D. RBCs are devoid of nucleus in most of the mammals and are biconcave in shape.
How many of the above statements are incorrect :-

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

79) Which of the following statement is incorrect about blood ?

(1) Blood is a special connective tissue consisting of a fluid matrix and formed elements.
(2) Plasma protein contributes 6-8% in blood-plasma.
(3) Clotting factors are also present in plasma in an active form.
(4) Blood is the most commonly used body fluid by most of the higher organisms including humans.

80) Read the following (A - D) Statements :-

(A) Plasma is a straw coloured, viscous fluid constituting 55 percent of the blood.
(B) 90-92 percent of plasma is water and proteins contribute 6-8 percent of it.
(C) Globulins are needed for clotting or coagulation of Blood.
(D) Fibrinogens are primarly involved in defence mechanism of the body.
How many of the above statements are correct ?

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

81) Following diagram of a structure represent how much percentage of WBCs ?

(1) 60–65%
(2) 0.5–1%
(3) 2–3%
(4) 6–8%

82) ABO grouping is based on the presence or absence of _____ on the RBCs.
Find the correct option which fills above blanks correctly :

(1) Two surface antibodies

(2) Two surface antigens
(3) Three surface antibodies
(4) Four surface antigens

83) Oxygen dissociation curve shifts to right when :-

(1) pO2 increases

(2) pCO2 decreases
(3) pH decreases
(4) Temperature decreases

84) Arrange the following steps of respiration properly:

1. Breathing or pulmonary ventilation by which atmospheric air is drawn in and CO2 rich alveolar air
is released out.
2. Diffusion of gases (O2 and CO2) across alveolar membrane.
3. Transport of gases by the blood.
4. Diffusion of O2 and CO2 between blood and tissues.
5. Utilization of O2, by the cells for catabolic reactions and resultant release of CO2.

(1) 1,2,3,4,5
(2) 1,3,2,5,4
(3) 5,4,3,1,2
(4) 3,4,5,2,1

85) Read the following statements.

(a) High H⊕ concentration and higher temperature are favourable for dissociation of oxygen from
oxyhaemoglobin.
(b) Partial pressure of oxygen in alveoli is higher than in Tissue.
(c) The maximum volume of air a person can breathe in after a forced expiration is vital capacity
(d) In alveoli low PCO2 and high PO2 are responsible for dissociation of CO2 from carbamino-
haemoglobin.
How many statements are correct ?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

86)

Which of the following statement/s is/are correct?

A- A high concentration of carbonic anhydrase is present in RBC.
B- Minute quantities of carbonic anhydrase is present in plasma.
C- Every 100 ml blood delivers approximately 4 ml of CO2 to the tissues
D- 20-25% CO2 is carried by haemoglobin as carbaminohaemoglobin.

(1) A, B and D
(2) A and D
(3) A, B, C and D
(4) Only A

87) Inspiration can occur if :-

(1) Intrapulmonary pressure is higher than the atmospheric pressure

(2) Intrapulmonary pressure and atmospheric pressure are equal
(3) Intrapulmonary pressure is less than atmospheric pressure
(4) Muscles of diaphragm relaxes

88) Find out the correct match from the following table:-

Column
Column I Column II
III

Tidal volume
(i) (EC – ERV) 500 ml
(TV)

Expiratory
(ii) reserve volume (VC – IRV – TV) 3000 ml
(ERV)

Vital capacity
(iii) IRV + ERV + RV 4500 ml
(VC)

Residual
(iv) FRC – ERV 1200 ml
volume (RV)
(1) (i) and (ii)
(2) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(4) (i) and (iv)

89) Which of the following option gives correct information about the coverings of thoracic cage on
various surfaces :-

Anterior Posterior Dorsal

surface surface surface

Sternum and
(1) Ribs Diaphragm
Ribs

Sternum and Clavicle bones

(2) Diaphragm
Ribs and neck

Sternum and Vertebral Clavicle bones

(3)
Ribs column and neck

Clavicle bones Vertebral

(4) Diaphragm
and neck column
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

90) Match the following columns.

Column I Column II
A Inspiratory capacity (IC) 1 Total air, a person can inspire after normal expiration
Maximal volume of the air, a person can breath in after a forced
B Expiratory capacity (EC) 2
expiration
C Functional residual capacity (FRC) 3 Volume of the air that will remain in lungs after a normal expiration
D Vital capacity (VC) 4 Total volume of air a person can expire after a normal inspiration
 A B C D
(1) 1 2 3 4
(2) 1 4 3 2
(3) 1 4 2 3
(4) 4 1 3 2
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 1 3 4 4 3 3 1 1 3 3 2 3 1 1 3 2 1 4 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 3 3 4 1 4 1 2 4 2 1 2 1 3 2 3 2 2 3 4
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 3 2 3 4

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 1 4 3 2 4 3 4 2 2 4 3 1 3 4 4 2 4 3 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 4 3 2 3 2 1 1 3 3 4 4 3 1 2 4 4 3 1 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 1 1 1 4

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 3 3 2 3 4 2 4 3 2 1 2 2 1 4 4 1 2 4 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 1 3 3 1 4 1 4 3 1 2 2 2 2 3 4 3 2 2 1
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 1 2 1 2 1 2 4 2 2 2 4 3 1 3 1 2 4 3 2
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 4 4 1 3 3 1 3 3 1 3 1 1 2 2 1 1 2 3 3 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 2 3 1 4 1 3 4 4 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Displacement : now find W =

2) when θ = tan–1(μ)

3)
= 125 + 25 – 35 = 115 J

4)

Explain question: A chain with length L and mass M hangs L off a smooth table; find work
to pull it fully on table.

Concept: This question is based on work done change in potential energy of the hanging part.

Solution: Length hanging = L, mass hanging = M.

Center of mass of hanging part is at half of hanging length from edge = L below table edge.
Work done to pull up = weight × height moved of center of mass:

W = (mass hanging) × g × (distance center of mass moved)

Final Answer: Option 4 is correct.

5)

Work done on the particle, when its displacement 0 to 5 m is 5 J

6) p1 = p
Percentage increase in kinetic energy

= = =
= 800%
7)

8)

9)
ΔU = –WDgr

10)

U1 = 25J
U2 = 25 + 75 = 100 J
U ∝ x2

x=4
∴ Further extended by 4 – 2 = 2cm

11)

= + 2 arel srel
2
0 = (40) + 2(–4) (srel)
srel = 200 m
Remaining distance = 300 – 200 = 100 m

12)

The Relative velocity of A with respect to B is 90 km/h at 37°N of E

13)

The relative speed of the two particles at the instant t =1 s, will be ​

14) Given velocity of man, vm = 2 kmh–1 and velocity of rain with respect to man

vrm = 2 km/h

Thus, direction of rainfall with the vertical is 45° Actual velocity of rain

15) For B always to be north of A, the velocity components of both along east should be same.

v2 cos 60° = v1 v2 = 10 km/h

16)

17)

The time after which the distance between them becomes the shortest is 5 h
 18)
,

So, resultant velocity

m/s
So, flag will flutter in south direciton.

19)

For collision should be along ( )

So, =

20) Tanα = ⇒ d = 40 m

21)

Action-reaction pair are acting in opposite direction, on different bodies, are of same nature.

22) 1. Question Explanation:

We are asked to find the force acting on a body at t = 2 seconds, given the momentum
components in the x and y directions as functions of time.

2. Concept Based:

A. The force acting on an object is the rate of change of momentum with respect to time.

A. For each direction, the force is the derivative of the respective momentum component.

3. Formula Used:
For the x and y directions:

4. Calculation:
Given momentum components:

A. Px = 2t2 + 6
 B.

For Px :

At t = 2 seconds:
For = 4 x 2 = 8 units
For Py

At t = 2 seconds:
Fy = 3 x 2 = 6 units

Total Force:
The total force is the vector sum of the forces in the x and y directions:

Conclusion:
The force acting on the body at t = 2 seconds is 10 units.
So. the correct answer is Option 3: 10 units.

23)

The acceleration of the car will be

24)

25) Before cutting the string

T = 2mg and FR = mg
after cutting the string T = 0

for A

for B

26)

The magnitude of acceleration in M2 is (F – M1a1)/M2

27)
The reading of the spring balance is 10 N

28)

The acceleration of the 20 kg mass is 4 m s–2

29)

Tension at mid point of the rope is 48 N

30)

m2 will snap but not m1

31)

Mass should be removed from it so that it starts moving up with an acceleration a is

32)

The average force acting on the wall is 24 N

33)

34)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks for the mathematical relationship between the
accelerations of two blocks, A and B, which are connected in a pulley system as shown in the
figure. Specifically, it wants to find how the acceleration of block A compares to that of block
B.
Underlying Concept: The problem involves the concept of acceleration constraints in a pulley
system connected by a string. Since the string length is constant and the blocks are connected,
their accelerations are related by the geometry of the string and pulley arrangement. The
tension in the string affects both blocks, leading to a direct relationship between their
accelerations.

Relevant Formulas: Given the tension T in the string and accelerations a_A and a_B of blocks
A and B respectively, the derived relation is:
2T \cdot a_B = T \cdot a_A
Where T is the tension in the string (assumed non-zero). After canceling T, the relation
becomes:
2a_B = a_A

Step-by-Step Calculation: Step 1: Write the relation based on tensions and accelerations:
2T \cdot a_B = T \cdot a_A
Step 2: Cancel tension T on both sides (T ≠0):
2a_B = a_A
Step 3: Rearrange to express acceleration of A in terms of B:

This shows block A's acceleration is twice that of block B.

Tips and Tricks: In pulley systems, focus on the constraint of fixed string length to relate the
accelerations of connected blocks. Canceling common factors like tension can simplify
relations quickly.

Common Mistakes: A common error is assuming accelerations of both blocks are equal
without analyzing the string constraints. Another mistake is thinking that the masses are
required for this relation, while actually, this depends only on the geometry and tension.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: "a_A = a_B" is incorrect because the pulley's
configuration doubles one block's movement relative to the other. "2a_A = a_B" is incorrect as
it reverses the correct relation. "Masses of blocks are required" is incorrect since this relation
depends on string length constraints, not masses.

35)

The horizontal velocity of the block is

36) u = 36km h–1 = 10 ms–1,

v = u + at, tanθ =
v = 10 – a × 5 (given v = 0) ⇒ a = 2

tanθ =
37)
M2a = M1g

a=
F = (M + M1 + M2)a

=(M + M1 + M2)

38)
= 1 × 10 × 0.1 = 1N
F = T1 +
3 = T1 + 1 ⇒ T1 = 2N
= 2(10) (0.1) = 2N
T2 + = T1
T2 + 2 = 2
T2 = 0
= 0, T3 = 0

39) μs = tanθ

μs =

40) For upper half

v2 = u2 + 2aℓ/2 = 02 + 2(g sinθ) ℓ/2 = gℓsinθ
For lower half

⇒ 0 = v2 + 2g(sinθ – μcosθ)

⇒ –gℓsinθ = gℓ(sinθ – μcosθ)

⇒ μcosθ = 2 sinθ ⇒ μ = 2 tanθ

41) a1 = gsinθ =

a2 = gsinθ – kgcosθ =
t2 = nt1 & =

k=1–

42) 50 – F = 10 a
F = 10 a
_________________
50 = 20a ⇒ a = 2.5
F = 25 N = fs max
aA = aB = 2.5 m/sec2

43)

44)
Fbd of block
mg = FS
mg = μN

mg = μMa ⇒ a = = 20 m/s2
 45)

a = µg = 5

v2 = u2 + 2as

0 = 22 + 2 × (5)s

s = – w.r.t. belt
or distance 0.4 m

CHEMISTRY

46)

Theory based

47)

Theory based

48)

Theory based

49)

Theory based

50)

Theory based

51)

Cyclic alkenes which have minimum 8 carbon show geometrical isomerism.

52)

Theory based

53) According to CIP priority is assigned according to atomic number of directly attached atom
54)

Theory based

55)

Theory based

56)

Theory based

57)

Theory based

58) Both are optically active and are opposite so are enantiomers.

59) is inactive so 0°

60)

Theory based

61)

Explaining the Question :-

Identify optically active compound.
Concept :-
For a compound to be optically active : Molecule must be chiral meaning it lacks a plane of
symmetry.
Solution :-

Final Answer :- Option (4)

62)
Theory based

63)

Theory based

64) Meso tartaric acid is optically inactive due to internal compensation.

65)

Theory based

66)

Theory based

67) All are correct

68)

Theory based

69) ΔTb = Kbm

0.52 = 0.52 ×
MX = 60

70)

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
Step 1 : Find the number of moles of NaOH
The molecular weight (molar mass) of NaOH is:
Na (sodium) = 22.99 g/mol.
O (oxygen) = 16.00 g/mol
H (hydrogen) = 1.008 g/mol
So, the molar mass of NaOH is:
22.99 + 16.00 + 1.008 = 40.00 g/mol
Next calculate the number of moles in 6 grams of NaOH:

moles of NaOH = = 0.15 mol

Step 2: Convert the volume of from milliters to liters
The volume is given as 100 mL, which is
100 mL = 0.100 L
Step 3: Calculate the molarity (M)
Molarity is defined as the number of moles of solute per liter of solution:
Molarity = = = 1.5 M

Conclusion:
Hence, option (3) is correct.

71)

(ΔTf)I = Kf × m

0.2 = 1.86 ×

x= mol

(ΔTf)II = 1.86 ×

0.25 = 1.86 × ⇒W=

W = 80 g

Amount of ice separated out

= 100 – 80 = 20 g

72)

i = 1 + 2α
1.98 = 1 + 2α
2α = 0.98
a = 0.49
% α = 49 %

73)
0
PS = PA0 xA + PB xB
0
= PA0 · xA + PB (1 – xA)
0 0
PS = (PA0 – PB )xA + PB .....(i)
P = 120 xA + 138 .....(ii)
Equating (1) & (ii)
0
PA – PB0 = 120, PB0 = 138 mm of Hg
0
PA = 120 + 138
= 258 mm of Hg
From equation
When xA = 0
xB = 1
74)

Mass of C2H5OH = 150 × 0.78 g

Volume of water added
= 1000 – 150 = 850 mL
Mass of Water = 850 g = 0.85 kg

Molality = = 2.99 m

75)

π = π1 + π2
= C1RT1 + C2RT2

= =

= × 0.082 × 293
P = 2.4 atm

76)

Theory based

77)

N= ; x is volume strength of H2O2

x= = 10

78)

Molarity = = = 9M

79)
Molecular mass = 12 × 11 + 8 + 32
of napthoic acid = 132 + 40
= 172
ΔTf = i × Kf × m

2 = i × 1.72 ×

2=i×

i= = 0.5

80)

Kp = Kc (RT)Δng
If Δng = 0 Kp = Kc

81)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks how to decrease the number of moles of ethylene
(Câ‚‚Hâ‚„) at equilibrium in a gas phase reaction where ethylene reacts with hydrogen (Hâ‚‚) to
form ethane (C₂H₆). The reaction is reversible and exothermic with a given enthalpy
change ΔH = -32.7 kcal.

Underlying Concept: The problem revolves around Le Châtelier's principle, which states
that if an external change is applied to a system at equilibrium, the system adjusts to partially
oppose that change. Since the reaction is exothermic (releases heat), changing the
temperature will shift the equilibrium. Also, pressure and concentration changes affect
equilibrium in reactions involving gases.

Tips and Tricks: Remember that exothermic reactions shift right when temperature
decreases and left when temperature increases. Also, equilibrium shifts toward the side with
fewer gas moles if pressure increases.

Common Mistakes: Assuming increasing temperature always favors product formation, or

confusing the effect of pressure changes without counting the moles of gaseous reactants and
products.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Increasing temperature adds heat to the system, which
favors the endothermic (reverse) reaction, increasing Câ‚‚Hâ‚„ instead of decreasing it.
Decreasing pressure would shift equilibrium toward the side with more moles of gas, which is
the reactants side (2 moles) versus 1 mole product, increasing Câ‚‚Hâ‚„. Removing Hâ‚‚
reduces one reactant, shifting equilibrium left to produce more Câ‚‚Hâ‚„. Hence, only
decreasing temperature decreases Câ‚‚Hâ‚„.

82) Question is Asking About:

The equilibrium reaction given is:
 We need to determine the effect of doubling the quantity of AB(s) on the amounts of A(g) and
B(g).

Given Data:

A. Reaction:
B. Change: Doubling the amount of AB(s)

Concept:

A. Solids do not affect the equilibrium because their concentration remains constant in
equilibrium expressions.
B. Only the partial pressures or concentrations of gases and aqueous species influence
equilibrium.
C. Since AB is a solid, increasing its quantity will not shift the equilibrium position or change the
amount of A(g) or B(g).

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
The equilibrium constant expression for this reaction is:

Since AB(s) is not included in the equilibrium expression, changing its quantity has no effect on the
equilibrium concentrations of A(g) and B(g).

Final Answer:
Cause no change in the amounts of A and B.
​Hence, option (4) is correct.

83) Explanation: An equilibrium is heterogeneous if it involves reactants and products in

different phases (solid, liquid, gas). In contrast, a homogeneous equilibrium occurs when all
substances are in the same phase. Concept: Homogeneous and heterogeneou.
Solution:
CaCO3 (s) ⇌ CaO(s) + CO2 (g).
• This reaction involves solids (CaCO3 and CaO) and a gas (CO2), making it a
heterogeneous equilibrium. • In heterogeneous equilibria, only the concentration of gases
and aqueous species appear in the equilibrium expression, while solids and liquids are
omitted. • Other options involve only gases, making them homogeneous equilibria
Answer Option 3, {CaCO3(s) ⇌ CaO(s) + CO2(g)}.

84)

ΔH < 0 exothermic
Δng < 0
favourable conditions : low temperature high pressure

85)
 Theory based

86)

The KC for reaction is

87)

forward.

88) Kc = [H2O]2. Solid phases are not to be reported.

89) A + B C+D
a a 0 0
(a – x) (a – x) x x
x = 2(a – x)

and

90) CO + H2O CO2 + H2 K

CO + O2 CO2 ....(1)

H2O H2 + O2....(2)
Adding (1) and (2)

CO + O2 CO2

H2O H2 + O2
CO + H2O CO2 + H2

K2 = =

BIOLOGY

91) Question Explanation :

The question asks to identify the correct pairings from a table that links different types of root
systems with their definitions and a plant example.
Concept :
This question is based on morphology of roots.

Solution :
(ii) Fibrous roots : Fibrous roots originate from the base of the stem and wheat is a classic
example of a plant with a fibrous root system. So, this match is correct.
(iii) Adventitious roots : Adventitious roots arise from parts of the plant other than the radicle
(like stems or leaves) and sweet potato is a good example of a plant with adventitious roots
used for storage. So, this match is correct.

Final Answer :
Option (4)

92) NCERT XIth Pg # 66

93) The correct answer is:

Prop roots
Explanation:
The thick roots that hang down from the banyan tree are called prop roots. These roots grow
from the branches and extend downward, providing extra support and stability to the tree,
helping it grow sturdily even in challenging environments. Prop roots are a type of aerial root
commonly seen in trees like banyans.
• Buttress roots: Large, spreading roots found at the base of some trees for stability, not
typically hanging from branches.
• Pneumatophores: Aerial roots found in mangrove plants that help in respiration in
waterlogged conditions.
• Stilt roots: Similar to prop roots, they also provide support but are typically seen in certain
monocots like maize and sugarcane.

94) NCERT XI, Pg. # 67

95) Question Explanation :

The question asks for a type of plant that grows in swampy or waterlogged areas and has roots
that grow vertically upwards, emerging from the soil.

Concept :
This question is based on root modifications.

Solution :
"In marshy areas like swamps, where oxygen is deficient, plants such as Rhizophora develop
special roots called pneumatophores that grow above the ground to absorb oxygen from the
air"

Final Answer:
Option (3)

96)
NCERT-XI, Pg. # 67, 68, 69

97) NCERT XIth Pg # 67

98) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 68

99) NCERT Pg # 69

100) NCERT [Link]. 59

101)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 59-61

102)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 71

103) NCERT Pg. # 65

104) NCERT Pg. # 73

105) NCERT Reference: Class XI, Page No. 75

106) NCERT Reference: Class XI, Page No. 68,69

107) NCERT Reference: Class XI, Page No. 68,71

108) NCERT Reference: Class XI, Page No. 73,75,76

109) NCERT Pg. # 72, Fig. 5.12

110)

Ncert pg No: 75 2021 - 2022

111)

Ncert pg No: 71 2021 - 2022

112) The correct answer is 1. Monadelphous.

 Explanation:
When the filaments of the stamens (the male reproductive part of a flower) are fused together
to form a single group, the condition is called monadelphous.
Therefore, the correct answer is 1. Monadelphous.

113) Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
Explanation:
In a unilocular ovary (having a single chamber) with a single ovule, the placentation is basal,
meaning the ovule is attached at the base of the ovary.
This type of placentatin if found in plants like sunflower (helianthus) and marigold (Tagetes).
The correct anwer is: Basal

114)

Solution:

A. Twisted aestivation is a type where one margin of the petal overlaps the next one, and so
on, in a regular spiral manner.

B. Cotton flowers exhibit twisted aestivation.

In Option 3, the petals are arranged in a way that shows one margin overlapping the next in a
consistent direction, demonstrating twisted aestivation.

The correct answer is Option 3.

115) The correct answer is:

1. Alstonia
Alstonia (a genus of trees in the family Apocynaceae) has whorled, simple leaves with
reticulate (net-like) venation. This means that the leaves are arranged in a whorl around the
stem, and the veins in the leaves form a network pattern.
Here's a breakdown of the other options:

A. Calotropis: Has opposite leaves, not whorled.

B. Mustard: Has alternate leaves with parallel venation (not reticulate).
C. China Rose (Hibiscus): Has alternate leaves with reticulate venation, but the leaf
arrangement is not whorled.

Therefore, Alstonia is the correct answer.

116) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 71

117) NCERT Pg. # 60, 61

118)
 NCERT-XI, Pg. # 70

119) NCERT-XI Pg. # 71

120) NCERT XI # 76

121) NCERT XI, Page # 76, Fig. 5.17(a)

122) NCERT Pg # 76

123) NCERT Pg # 76

124) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 77, Fig. # 5.19

125) Question Explanation :

The question asks for the specific name of the single cotyledon found in a maize (corn) seed.

Concept :
This question is based on Monocotyledonous Seed.

Solution :
"The embryo in maize grain is situated on one side of the endosperm. It consists of one large
and shield-shaped cotyledon known as scutellum"

Final Answer :
Option (3)

126) Correct Answer: 4 (A proteinaceous aleurone layer is present in maize grain)

Explanation of the Correct Answer:

A. In maize grain (a monocot seed), the aleurone layer is a specialized protein-rich layer
surrounding the endosperm.
B. It plays a role in enzyme secretion during seed germination, helping in the digestion of stored
food.

127)

Explain Question : The question is asking to identify the plant genus from the given options.

Concept : This question is based on bryophytes (mosses)

Solution :
Based on the presence of distinct antheridial and archegonial branches, the figure represents
a moss, and among the options, Sphagnum is the correct identification.

Final Answer : option (3)

128) NCERT-XIth Pg# 38,39

129)

NCERT Pg : 36, 2021 - 22

130) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 31

131) NCERT-XI Pg # 29

132)

NCERT-XI Pg#39

133)

NCERT-XI, Pg # 33

134)

Class 11, Ncert Page 30, 31 and 32.

135) NCERT, Pg. # 36

136)

A. Question: How many of the given statements about the respiratory system are correct (not
incorrect)?
B. Given Data: Four statements about the respiratory system are provided.
C. Concept: This question tests knowledge of respiratory system anatomy and physiology.
D. Explanation:

(A) Alveoli are the primary sites of exchange of gases: This statement is correct. The
alveoli are the tiny air sacs in the lungs where gas exchange between the air and the blood
occurs.
(B) Trachea has 'C' shaped rings which are ventrally incomplete: This statement is
incorrect. The trachea's cartilaginous rings are C-shaped and incomplete on the dorsal
surface. This incomplete structure allows for flexibility and expansion of the esophagus during
swallowing.
(C) Covering of the lung is called pleura: This statement is correct. The lungs are enclosed
by a double-layered membrane called the pleura. The pleural fluid between the layers reduces
friction during lung movement.
(D) Right lung has 2 lobes and left has 3 lobes: This statement is incorrect. The right lung
has three lobes (superior, middle, and inferior), while the left lung has two lobes (superior and
inferior).
E. Final Answer: Two statements (A, and C) are correct. Therefore, the answer is 1
 137)

NCERT Based

138)

Question: Analyze the given Assertion and Reason regarding CO2 dissociation in the alveoli.

B. Given Data:

A. Assertion: In the alveoli, dissociation of CO2 from carbamino-hemoglobin takes place.

B. Reason: In the alveoli, pCO2 is low and pO2 is high.

C. Concept: Carbon dioxide transport and the factors affecting its release in the lungs.

D. Explanation:

A. Assertion: The assertion is true. In the alveoli, where gas exchange occurs, CO2 is released
from carbamino-hemoglobin. This is essential for CO2 to be exhaled from the body.
B. Reason: The reason is also true. The partial pressure of carbon dioxide (pCO2) in the alveoli is
low, while the partial pressure of oxygen (pO2) is high. This difference in partial pressures
drives the diffusion of CO2 from the blood into the alveoli and O2 from the alveoli into the
blood.
C. Relationship: The reason is the correct explanation for the assertion. The low pCO2 in the
alveoli favors the dissociation of CO2 from carbamino-hemoglobin. The high pO2 simultaneously
promotes the binding of oxygen to hemoglobin. This is a crucial aspect of the gas exchange
process in the lungs.

139)

NCERT Based

140)

NCERT Based

141)

NCERT Based

142)

NCERT Pg.# 198

143) NCERT-XI, Page 283

144) NCERT XI Pg # 273, 274

145) NCERT-XI- 271,272

146)

NCERT Based

147)

NCERT Based

148) NCERT Page No. # 274, 275

149)

NCERT Pg. # 270

150)

Blood group 'O' indicates and absence of. A and B antigens

antigens: evokes allergic response, since these are absent in, so immune system will not react
Hence 'O' can be transfused to any blood type = universal donors

151)

NCERT Based

152)

NCERT Based

153)

NCERT Based

154)

NCERT Based

155)

NCERT Based
156) NCERT (XI) Page No. # 275

157)

NCERT Based

158)

NCERT Based

159) NCERT (XI) Page No. # 273

160)

NCERT Based

161) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 272

162)

NCERT Based

163)

NCERT Based

164)

NCERT Based

165)

NCERT Page No. # 281

166)

NCERT, Pg. # 275

167)

NCERT based

168)
Let's analyze each statement:
• A statement is correct. Red blood cells are indeed the most numerous cells in the blood .
• B statement is incorrect. The normal range for a healthy adult male is typically around 4.5 to
5.5 million RBCs per microliter (µL} of blood.
• C statement is incorrect. In adults, RBCs are primarily produced in the bone marrow,
specifically in the red bone marrow.
• D statement is correct. Mature RBCs in mammals lack a nucleus and have a biconcave shape
.
Therefore, two of the statements (B and C) are incorrect.
So, the correct answer is Option 3.

169)

NCERT XI (E) Page 278, 279

170)

What the Question Is Asking: The question asks to determine the number of correct
statements among the four given statements (A, B, C, and D) about blood plasma and its
components.

Solution: Let's analyze each statement:

(A) Plasma is a straw coloured, viscous fluid constituting 55 percent of the blood.

A. Correctness: Correct

(B) 90-92 percent of plasma is water and proteins contribute 6-8 percent of it.

A. Correctness: Correct

(C) Globulins are needed for clotting or coagulation of Blood.

A. Correctness: Incorrect

(D) Fibrinogens are primarly involved in defence mechanism of the body.

A. Correctness: Incorrect

Based on the analysis, statements (A) and (B) are correct, while statements (C) and (D) are
incorrect. Therefore, two of the statements are correct.

CORRECT ANSWER: 3. Two

171) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 279; para-3

172)

NCERT Based

173) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 274

174)

NCERT-XI; Page No. # 185

175) NCERT XI, Pg # 189

176)

A. Question: Identify the correct statements regarding carbon dioxide transport in the blood.
B. Given Data: Four statements (A, B, C, and D) about CO2 transport are provided.
C. Concept: This question tests knowledge of the physiological mechanisms of carbon dioxide
transport in the blood.
D. Explanation:

A- A high concentration of carbonic anhydrase is present in RBC: This is correct. Red

blood cells (RBCs) contain a high concentration of the enzyme carbonic anhydrase, which is
crucial for the rapid conversion of CO2 and water into bicarbonate ions (HCO3–) and protons
(H+). This facilitates the transport of CO2.
​ B- Minute quantities of carbonic anhydrase is present in plasma: This is also correct.
While the majority of carbonic anhydrase is in RBCs, small amounts are also present in
plasma, contributing to CO2 conversion there as well, though to a lesser extent.
C- Every 100 ml blood delivers approximately 4 ml of CO 2 to the tissues: This is
incorrect. 100 ml of deoxygenated blood delivers approximately 4 ml of CO2 to the lungs (not
tissues). The tissues produce CO2, which is then picked up by the blood.
D- 20-25% CO2 is carried by haemoglobin as carbaminohaemoglobin: This is correct.
About 20-25% of CO2 binds to hemoglobin, forming carbaminohaemoglobin. This is one of the
ways CO2 is transported in the blood.
E. Final Answer: The correct answer is 1: A, B and D.

177) NCERT XI, Page # 271, para-1

178)

The correct answer is:

3. (i) , (ii) and (iii)
Explanation based on Class 11 NCERT:
Let's review the definitions and the values for each respiratory volume:
1. Tidal Volume (TV):
 A. This is the volume of air inhaled or exhaled during normal breathing.
B. According to NCERT, the typical value for tidal volume is 500 ml. The given formula TV =
(EC - ERV) is correct, as it is the amount of air breathed in and out during regular breathing.
C. So, (i) Tidal Volume (TV) = 500 ml is correct.

2. Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV):

A. This is the volume of air that can be forcibly exhaled after a normal exhalation.
B. The formula ERV = VC - IRV - TV is also correct, where VC is the vital capacity IRV is the
inspiratory reserve volume, and TV is the tidal volume.
C. The typical value for ERV is approximately 3000 ml.
D. So, (ii) Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV) = 3000 ml is correct.

3. Vital Capacity (VC):

A. This is the maximum volume of air that can be exhaled after a maximum inhalation.
B. The formula VC = IRV + TV + ERV is correct, where VC is the sum of inspiratory reserve
volume (IRV), tidal volume (TV), and expiratory reserve volume (ERV).
C. The typical value for VC is around 4500 ml.
D. So, (iii) Vital Capacity (VC) = 4500 ml is correct.

4. Residual Volume (RV):

A. This is the volume of air remaining in the lungs after a forced exhalation.
B. The formula RV = FRC - ERV is incorrect. In fact, RV is the volume of air that cannot be
exhaled from the lungs, and it doesn't depend on FRC (functional residual capacity) in this
way.
C. The typical value for RV is about 1200 ml, but the formula given is not accurate according to
NCERT.

179)

SOLUTION/EXPLAINATION:

The thoracic cage is covered by different structures on various surfaces:

A. Anterior surface:

○ Covered by the clavicle bones (uppermost part of the thorax) and neck region in
the upper part of the thoracic cage.

B. Posterior surface:

○ The diaphragm is located at the base of the thoracic cage and also provides
structural support from a posterior aspect.

C. Dorsal surface:

○ The vertebral column forms the posterior, dorsal backbone of the thoracic cage.

Thus, Option 4 correctly describes the coverings:

● Anterior surface: Clavicle bones and neck

 ● Posterior surface: Diaphragm

● Dorsal surface: Vertebral column

180)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 187