10-08-2025

7501CMD303034250005 MD

PHYSICS

1) A unidirectional force F varying with time t as shown in the fig, acts on a body initially at rest, for

a short duration 2T. Then the velocity acquired by the body is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) zero

2) Bullets of mass 50g are fired from a gun of mass 10 kg with velocity of 300 m/s. If 5 bullets are
fired per second then what force a person will have to apply on the gun so that it does not recoil:-

(1) 75 N
(2) 150 N
(3) 225 N
(4) 300 N

3) In a rocket; fuel is ejected with a velocity of 6 km/sec. If the fuel burns at the rate of 1 kg/sec,
then thrust on rocket is :-

(1) 6 × 103 N
(2) 6 × 102 N
(3) 60 N
(4) 6N

4)
If (μ = 0.5) then find out acceleration of block :

(1) 25 m/s2
(2) 12 m/s2
(3) 7.2 m/s2
(4) 0

5) A body of mass 2 kg has an initial velocity of 3 m/s along OE and it is subjected to a force of 4 N in
a direction perpendicular to OE (see fig.). The distance of body from O after 4 s will be :-

(1) 12 m
(2) 20 m
(3) 8 m
(4) 48 m

6) For the given pulley system with ideal pulley and ideal strings, find the acceleration of the 4 kg

block and tension in string connecting the blocks. (g = 10 m/s2) :-

(1) 2 m/s2, 32 N
(2) 2 m/s2, 48 N
(3) 4 m/s2, 32 N
(4) 4 m/s2, 48 N

7) A trolley T (mass 5 kg) on a horizontal smooth surface is pulled by a load L (2 kg) through a
uniform rope ABC of length 2m and mass 1 kg. As the load falls from BC = 0m to BC = 2m, its

acceleration (in ms–2) changes from (Take g = 10 ms–2) :

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

8) Three blocks of masses 4kg, 6kg, 8kg are hanging over a fixed pulley as shown. The tension in the

string connecting 4kg and 6kg block is :- (g = 10m/s2)

(1) 4N
(2) 6N

(3)

(4)
​

9) If the arrangement shown in the figure is in equilibrium then mass m of the block will be :-

(1) 3 kg
(2) 2 kg
(3) 1.5 kg
(4) 1 kg

10) Acceleration of the lower block is :-

(1) 2.5 m/s2

(2) 5 m/s2
(3) 4 m/s2
(4) zero

11) Two block (A) 2 kg and (B) 5 kg rest one over the other on a smooth horizontal plane. The
cofficient of static and dynamic friction between (A) and (B) is the same and equal to 0.60. The
maximum horizontal force that can be applied to (B) in order that both (A) and (B) do not have any

relative motion : (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 42 N
(2) 42 kgf
(3) 5.4 kgf
(4) 1.2 N

12)

A gramophone record is revolving with an angular velocity . A coin is placed at a distance r from
the centre of the record. The static coefficient of friction is . The coin will revolve with the record if
:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) A block of mass m is in contact with the cart C as shown in the figure.

The coefficient of static friction between the block and the cart is m. The acceleration a of the cart
that will prevent the block from falling satisfies

(1)
a>
a>
(2)

(3)

a<
(4)
14) Acceleration of block A varies with time as shown in figure. The value of coefficient of kinetic
friction between block A and B is :-

(1) 0.5
(2) 0.6
(3) 0.4
(4) None of these

15) A block of mass 5kg slides down on an inclined plane of inclination 30° from a height of 10m
from ground. The coefficient of friction between the block and the inclined plane is 0.5. Find the

work done by friction on the block.

(1)
(2)
(3) 500 J
(4) –500 J

16) A toy car of mass 5 kg starts from rest and moves up a ramp under the influence of force F (F is
applied in the direction of velocity) plotted against displacement x. The maximum height attained is
given by
(1) ymax = 20 m
(2) ymax = 15 m
(3) ymax = 11 m
(4) ymax = 5 m

17) A particle of mass M, starting from rest, undergoes uniform acceleration. If the speed acquired
in time T is V, the power delivered to the particle is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) A time dependent force F = 6t acts on a particle of mass 1kg. If the particle starts from rest, the
work done by the force during the first 1 sec. will be :

(1) 18 J
(2) 4.5 J
(3) 22 J
(4) 9 J

19) A block of mass m, lying on a smooth horizontal surface, is attached to a spring (of negligible
mass) of spring constant k. The other end of the spring is fixed, as shown in figure. The block is
initially at rest in its equilibrium position. If now the block is pulled with a constant force F, the
maximum speed of the block is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) A uniform chain has a mass m and length l. It is held on a frictionless table with one-sixth of its
length hanging over the edge. The work done in just pulling the hanging part back on the table is:-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

21) The earth (Me = 6 × 1024 kg) is revolving round the sun in an orbit of radius (1.5 × 108) km with
angular velocity of (2 × 10–7) rad/s. The force (in newton) exerted on the earth by the sun will be :-

(1) 36 × 1021
(2) 16 × 1024
(3) 25 × 1016
(4) Zero

22) A point moves along a circle with speed v = at. The total acceleration of the particle at a time
when it has traced 1/8th of the circumference is :-

(1)

(2)
(3) a

(4)

23) A ball of mass m is attached to a string of length L and given a horizontal velocity at its
lowest point as shown. The ratio of tension in the string when it has turned an angle 60° to initial

tension, i.e. T2/T1 is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) Three identical particles are joined together by a thread as shown in figure. All the three
particles are moving in a horizontal plane. If the velocity of the outermost particle is ν0, then the
ratio of tensions in the three sections of the string is:

(1) 3 : 5 : 7
(2) 3 : 4 : 5
(3) 7 : 11 : 6
(4) 3 : 5 : 6

25) A string of length L is fixed at one end and carries a mass M at the other end. The string makes
2/π revolutions per second around the vertical axis through the fixed end as shown in the figure,

then tension in the string is

(1) ML
(2) 2 ML
(3) 4 ML
(4) 16 ML

26) A string breaks if its tension exceeds 10 newtons. A stone of mass 250 gm tied to this string of
length 10 cm is rotated in a horizontal circle. The maximum angular velocity of rotation can be.

(1) 20 rad/s
(2) 40 rad/s
(3) 100 rad/s
(4) 200 rad/s

27) A uniform rod of length l and mass m is allowed to rotate in a horizontal plane about a vertical
axis OO′ passing through one of its ends with an angular velocity ω. Then the tension in the rod in

terms of distance x measured from the axis of rotation is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) A small disc of diameter is removed from larger uniform disc of radius R. Then shift of centre
of mass would be

(1)
towards left

(2)
towards left

(3)
towards right

(4)
towards right

29) A man of mass 80 kg jumps from a stationary cart of mass 200 kg with a velocity of 5 m/s. Find
the velocity of the cart after the jump.

(1) −2 m/s
(2) 2 m/s
(3) −1 m/s
(4) 1 m/s

30) What should be the minimum speed of a particle at horizontal position of string so that it can
complete vertical circular motion with the help of string of length .

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

31) Three particles of masses 1kg, m (kg) and 3kg are situated at the corners of an equilateral
triangle move at speed 6 ms–1, 3ms–1 and 2ms–1 respectively. Each particle maintains a direction
towards the particle at the next corner symmetrically. If the velocity of centre of mass of the system

at this instant is zero then find the value of m.

(1) 1 kg
(2) 2 kg
(3) 3 kg
(4) 4 kg

32) A force acts on a 3 gm particle in such a way that the position of the particle as a function of
time is given by x = 3t – 4t2 + t3, where x is meters and t is in seconds. The work done during the
first 4 second is-

(1) 384 mJ
(2) 168 mJ
(3) 528 mJ
(4) 541 mJ

33) From a circular disc of radius R, a triangular plate is cut as shown in figure. the distance of

centre of mass of the remaining disc from the centre O is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) A neutron collides head-on and elastically with an atom of mass number A, which is initially at
rest. The fraction of kinetic energy retained by neutron is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35) A cart of mass M is tied to one end of a massless rope of length 10m. The other end of the rope is

in the hands of a man of mass . The entire system is one a smooth horizontal surface. If the man
pulls the cart by the rope then find the distance the man will slip on the horizontal surface before
the man & the cart will meet each other.

(1)

(2)

(3) 0
(4) None

36) The diagram shows the velocities just before collision of two smooth spheres of equal radius and
mass. The impact is perfectly elastic. The velocities just after impact are :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) A semicircular disc of mass m and a particle of mass 4m are placed as shown in figure. If the
centre of masss of the combination lies at origin, the value of y is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

38) The force 'F' acting on a particle of mass 'm' is indicated by the force-time graph shown below.
The change in momentum of the particle over the time interval from zero to 8s is :

(1) 12 Ns
(2) 6 Ns
(3) 24 Ns
(4) 20 Ns

39) ABCDE is a channel in the vertical plane, part BCDE being circular with radius r. A block is
released from A and slides without friction and without rolling. The block will complete the loop if h

is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

40) If two masses m1 and m2 collide, the ratio of the changes in their respective velocities is
proportional to :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

41) A particle of mass m moving with speed v towards east strikes another particle of same mass
moving with speed 2v towards north. After striking, the two particles fuse together. With what speed
this new particle of mass 2 m will move ?

(1) v

(2)

(3)

(4)

42)

Figure shows an irregular wedge of mass m placed on a smooth horizontal surface. Part BC is rough.
What minimum velocity should be imparted to a small block of same mass m so that it may reach
point B :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

43) A block of mass m is pushed towards the movable wedge of mass M and height h, with a velocity
v0. All surfaces are smooth. The minimum value of v0 for which the block will reach the top of the
wedge is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

44)

A cricket bat is cut at the location of its centre of mass as shown. Then :-

(1) The two pieces will have the same mass

(2) The bottom piece will have larger mass
(3) The handle piece will have larger mass
(4) Mass of handle piece is double the mass of bottom piece

45) Three identical discs of radius R are joined as shown. Find position of centre of mass for this

system ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
 CHEMISTRY

1) The magnetic moment of[NiX4]2– ion is found to be zero. Then the hybridization of Ni in the ion is
(X = monodentate anionic ligand)

(1) sp3 hybridized

(2) spd2 hybridized
(3) dsp2 hybridised
(4) d2sp hybridised

2) The magnitude of CFSE (Δ0) is related to configuration of d-orbital in the given entity ? because :
(P = Pairing energy)

(1) If Δ0 < P, confi. = = WFL & high spin complex

(2) If Δ0 > P, confi. = = SFL & Low spin complex

(3) If Δ0 > P, confi. = = SFL & high spin complex

(4) If Δ0 > P, confi. = = SFL & high spin complex

3) Which of following isomer of [M(NH3)2Cl2] would react with silver oxalate (Ag2C2O4) :-

(1)

(2)

(3) Both
(4) None

4) Which of the following high spin complex has maximum number of unpaired electron :-

(1) d4 (octahedral)
(2) d9 (octahedral)
(3) d7 (octahedral)
(4) d5 (octahedral)

5) Correct increasing order of spin magnetic moment (in B.M.) for complexes for :
(I) [FeF6]–3
(II) [V(H2O)6]+2
(III) [Fe(H2O)6]+2

(1) III < II < I

(2) II < III < I
(3) III < I < II
(4) II < I < III

6) Value of CFSE, in tetrahedral complex having 3d4 configuration of metal ion, surrounded by
weak ligands, will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7)

Compound Total stereoisomers

(A) [Co(en)2Br2]+ (M) 2

(B) K3[Co(OX)3] (N) 3

(C) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2] (O) 4

(D) [Pt(NH3)3Br3]+ (P) 5

Correct is :

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(1) O M O O

(2) N M M M

(3) M O M M

(4) N N M M
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

8) Which of the following complex have chelation :-

(1) [Co (Py)3(NH3)3]Cl3

(2) [RhCl (PPh3)3]
(3) [Fe (H2O)5NO]SO4
(4) [Pt (en)2]Cl2

9) The IUPAC name of [Co(en)3]2 (SO4)3 is :-

(1) Triethylenediaminecobalt (III) sulphate
(2) Trisethylenediaminecobalt (III) sulphate
(3) Trisethylenetriaminecobalt (III) trisulphate
(4) Trisethylenediaminecobaltate (III) sulphate

10) Fac-Mer isomerism is associated with which one of the following complexes ?

+2
(1) [Pt(en)2]
(2) [Co(NH3)3Cl3]
+3
(3) [Co(en)3]
(4) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2]

11) Which of the following is correctly matched complex:-

Oxidation Electronic
Complex
Number Configuration
0
1 K2[Co(C2O4)3] +3 t62geg

2 (NH4)2[CoF6] +2 t52geg2
0
3 Cis-[Cr(en)2Cl2].Cl +3 t32geg
0
4 [Mn(H2O)6].SO4 +2 t52geg
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

12) EAN of Cr in [Cr(CO)6] is :-

(1) 34
(2) 35
(3) 36
(4) 37

13) In Fe (CO)5 , the Fe–C bond possesses

(1) ionic character

(2) σ – character only
(3) π –character only
(4) both σ & π character

14) Which of the following has least conductivity in aqueous solution.

(1) CoCl3 . 4 NH3

(2) CoCl3 . 3NH3
(3) CoCl3 . 5NH3
(4) CoCl3 . 6NH3

15) The value of the 'spin only' magnetic moment for one of the following configurations is 2.84 BM.
The correct one is

(1) d4 (in strong ligand filed)

(2) d4 (in weak ligand filed)
(3) d3 (in weak as well as in strong fields)
(4) d5 (in strong ligand filed)

16) Which of the following is not an organo metalic compound :-

(1) (C2H5)2Zn
(2) CH3B(OCH3)2
(3) B(OCH3)3
(4) Ni(CO)4

17) In which compound central atom use different principle quantum in hybridisation :-

(1) [Ni(CO)4]
(2) [Cr(CO)6]
+2
(3) [Zn(NH3)6]
(4) XeF4

18) In which coordination compound Δ0(CFSE in octahedral) magnitude is maximum :-

+3
(1) [Co(NH3)6]
–3
(2) [Co(CN)6]
–3
(3) [CoF6]
+3
(4) [Co(H2O)6]

19)

Number of total Ring present in [Ni(dmg)2] of 5 member and 6 member respectively :-

(1) 1, 2
(2) 2, 2
(3) 3, 3
(4) 2, 3

20) Which of the following compound does not give test of sulphate ion in aqueous solution :-

(1) K2SO4.Al2(SO4)3.24H2O
(2) [Cu(H2O)4]SO4.H2O
(3) [CoSO4 (NH3)5]Br
(4) FeSO4.(NH4)2SO4.6H2O

21) Identify anionic bidentate ligand in following :

(1) en
(2) OX
(3) Dipy
(4) NO

22) CO bond length is longest in :

+
(1) [Mn(CO)6]
–
(2) [V(CO)6]
(3) [Cr(CO)6]
2–
(4) [Ti(CO)6]

23) The IUPAC name of [Co(en)2Cl2]Cl is :

(1) Dichloro ethylene diamine cobalt (III) chloride

(2) Chloro bis(ethylene diamine) cobalt (III) chloride
(3) Dichloro bis(ethylene diamine) cobalt (III) chloride
(4) Dichloro bis(ethylenediamine) cobaltate (III) chloride

24) Which of the following complexes produce ppt. with AgNO3 and exist in two geometrical isomeric
form :-

(1) PtCl2.4NH3
(2) PtCl2.3NH3
(3) PtCl4.4NH3
(4) PtCl4.2NH3

25) [Co(NH3)6] [Cr(CN)6] and [Cr(NH3)6][Co(CN)6] are

(1) linkage isomers

(2) ionisation isomers
(3) coordination isomers
(4) none of these

26) Incorrect statement among the following is

(1) Graphite has layered structure

(2) Coke is obtained from coal by heating it at high temperature in the absence of air
(3) Buckminsterfullerence contains twenty-five membered rings
(4) Graphite conducts electricity along the sheet
27) Match the column with appropriate answers.

Column-I Column-II
(Interhalogen (Hydrolysed
compounds) product)

I. IF A. HIO3 + HF

II. IF3 B. HIO + HF

III. IF5 C. HIO4 + HF

IV. IF7 D. HIO2 + HF

(1) I→A, II→B, III→C, IV→D
(2) I→B, II→D, III→A, IV→C
(3) I→C, II→D, III→A, IV→B
(4) I→D, II→C, III→A, IV→B

28) AlCl3 on steam hydrolysis gives :

(1) Al2O3.H2O
(2) Al(OH)3
(3) Al2O3
(4) AlCl3.6H2O

29) The P- O- P linkages in P4O10 and P4O6 are

(1) 5, 5
(2) 5, 6
(3) 6, 5
(4) 6, 6

30) The structure of diborane contains

(1) Four 2c–2e bonds and two 3c–2e bonds

(2) Two 2c–2e bonds and four 3c–2e bonds
(3) Two 2c – 2e bonds and two 3c–2e bonds
(4) Four 2c–2e bonds and four 3c–2e bonds

31) Back bonding in BF3 does not affect:

(1) planarity, Lewis acidic strength and bond angle

(2) bond length, hybridization and bond strength
(3) bond angle, planarity and geometry
(4) Lewis’s acidity, bond length and bond order (B-F)

32) Which among the given alkali metal fluoride does not act as a fluorinating agent for XeF6 ?
(1) CsF
(2) KF
(3) LiF
(4) RbF

33) Assertion :- The stability order of +1 oxidation state of Ga, ln and Tl is Ga < ln < Tl.
Reason :- The inert pair effect stabilizes the lower oxidation state down the group.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

34) Given below are two statements :-

Statement I :- Gallium is used in the manufacturing of thermometers.
Statement II :- A thermometer containing gallium is useful for measuring the freezing point (256 K)
of brine solution.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

35) Which of the following is not possible due to back bonding.

(1) State of hybridisataion may change

(2) Bond order increases
(3) Bond angle always increases
(4) Lewis acidic strength decreases

36) Oxyacid of sulphur showing odd oxidation state.

(1) H2S2O3
(2) H2S2O7
(3) H2S2O8
(4) H2S

37) Incorrect statement for nitrogen is :

(1) General valency is 3.

(2) Maximum covalency is 4.
(3) Minimum and maximum oxidation state are –3 and +5 respectively.
(4) It can increase its covalency by accepting lone pair.

38) Assertion : PbI4, BiBr5, PbBr4 does not exist.

Reason : Higher oxidation state of metal ions are strong oxidising agent which give redox reaction
with Iodide ion Bromide ion.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

39) The correct order of acidity is :

(1) HClO < HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4

(2) HClO4 < HClO3 < HClO2 < HClO
(3) HClO < HClO4 < HClO3 < HClO2
(4) HClO4 < HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO

40) Which among the given statements below is incorrect ?

(1) SF6 < SeF6 < TeF6 : Hydrolysis tendency

(2) : positive value of SRP, thus acting as a strong reducing agent.

(3) : Order of enthalpy of hydration
(4) BiF5 exists but BiCl5, BiBr5 & BiI5 does not

41) Formula of Marshall acid (Peroxodisulphuric acid) is-

(1) H2SO4
(2) H2S2O7
(3) H2S2O8
(4) H2SO5

42) First compound of noble gas prepared by Bartlett was-

(1) XeO3
(2) XeF6
(3) XeO2F2
(4) XePtF6

43) Fluorine is a stronger oxidising agent than chlorine. The correct reason is......

(1) Low enthalpy of dissociation of F–F bond.

(2) High hydration enthalpy of F– ion.
(3) Low standard reduction potential of F2.
(4) Both (1) and (2)

44) Select the correct order of stability :

(1) Sn+2 > Sn+4

(2) Pb+2 > Pb+4
(3) Sn+2 > Pb+2
(4) Sn+4 < Pb+4

45) Which of the following undergoes disproportionation on hydrolysis :

(1) XeF2
(2) XeF4
(3) XeF6
(4) All of the above

BIOLOGY

1) A bivalent in pachytene stage consists of :-

(1) 2 chromatids & 1 centromeres

(2) 2 chromatids & 2 centromeres
(3) 4 chromatids & 2 centromeres
(4) 4 chromatids & 4 centromeres

2) In Oocyte of some vertebrates, the stage of meiosis I that can last for months or years would be :-

(1) Zygotene
(2) Pachytene
(3) Diplotene
(4) Diakinesis

3) In 'S' phase of the cell cycle :-

(1) Chromosomes number is increased

(2) Amount of DNA remains same in each cell
(3) Amount of DNA doubles in each cell
(4) Amount of DNA is increased to half in each cell.

4) The most dramatic period of the cell cycle :-

(1) Interphase
(2) S-phase
(3) M-phase
(4) Cytokinesis

5) It is significant to note that in the 24 hour average duration of cell cycle of human cell, cell
division proper lasts for only about

(1) four hours

(2) 90 minutes
(3) an hour
(4) 10 hours

6) During interphase, histone proteins are synthesized in which phase ?

(1) G1
(2) G2
(3) S
(4) G0

7) The sequence of events by which a cell duplicates its genome, synthesise the other constituents of
cells and eventually divides into two daughter cells is termed as

(1) Cytology
(2) Cell division
(3) Cell cycle
(4) Cell biology

8) Which of the following features of living organisms is unique to human beings?

(1) Growth
(2) Metabolism
(3) Reproduction
(4) Self-consciousness

9) Which of the following is a defining characteristic of living organisms ?

(1) Growth
(2) Ability to make sound
(3) Reproduction
(4) Response to external stimuli

10) The basic smallest unit of classifications is :-

(1) Genus
(2) Species
(3) Order
(4) All of the above

11) Which one of the following prokaryotes lack cell wall?

(1) Virus
(2) Cyanobacteria
(3) Mycoplasma
(4) Protozoa
12) The sole members of kingdom Monera

(1) Always lack cell walls

(2) Are structurally simple but very complex in behaviour
(3) Have true nucleus
(4) Are photosynthetic due to presence of chloroplast

13) Match the column I to II.

Column - I Column - II
A = Family a. Poales
B = Order b. Insecta
C = Class c. Muscidae
D = Phylum d. Chordata

(1) A = c B = a C = b D = d
(2) A = b B = c C = d D = c
(3) A = d B = c C = a D = b
(4) A = c B = d C = a D = b

14) Identify the correct sequence of taxonomic categories :-

(1) Species → order → phylum → kingdom → family

(2) Genus → family → order → class → division
(3) Species → class → family → order → division
(4) Genus → order → family → class → division

15) Which classification is also called cladistic classification ?

(1) Numerical
(2) Artificial
(3) Phylogenetic
(4) Practical

16) A cell has 2n = 42 chromosomes then what will be number of chromosome during metaphase :-

(1) 21
(2) 42
(3) 92
(4) 44

17) If mitotically dividing diploid cell has initial amount of DNA as 5 pg in G1 stage that is distributed
among its 10 chromosome then which of the following assumption is correct?

(1) G2 phase → 20 chromosome with 10 pg DNA

(2) Anaphase → 20 chromosome with 10 pg DNA
(3) S phase → 5 chromosome with 5 pg DNA
(4) Early prophase → 10 chromosome with 5 pg DNA

18) Best stages to study morphology and shape of chromosome are respectively

(1) Metaphase, Telophase

(2) Prophase, Anaphase
(3) Telophase, Anaphase
(4) Metaphase, Anaphase

19) The following graphs (A and B) depicts changes in DNA Content during cell cycle. Identify the

cell division A and B :-

(1) A → Meiosis–II, B → Meiosis–I

(2) A → Mitosis, B → Meiosis–I
(3) A → Meiosis–I, B → Mitosis
(4) A → Mitosis, B → Meiosis

20) How many centromeres are seen in human cell during metaphase

(1) 2
(2) 32
(3) 23
(4) 46

21) What is the significance of mitosis ?

(1) Growth of multicellular organisms

(2) Cell repair
(3) Restores the nucleo–cytoplasmic ratio
(4) All of these

22) If the initial amount of DNA in a cell is represented as 2C then the amount of DNA in this cell
immediately after S phase, at metaphase and in anaphase, respectively, should be :-

(1) 4C, 4C and 2C

(2) 4C, 4C and 4C
(3) 2C, 4C and 4C
(4) 2C, 4C and 2C

23) In a diploid cell number of chromosomes are 40 and each chromosome contain one DNA
molecules. Then choose the correct option for number of chromosome and DNA molecules in G2-
phase and Anaphase of Mitosis, respectively :
(1) G2 – 40, 80 ; Anaphase – 40, 80
(2) G2 – 80, 80 ; Anaphase – 80, 80
(3) G2 – 80, 40 ; Anaphase – 80, 80
(4) G2 – 40, 80 ; Anaphase – 80, 80

24) The outline of some events of mitotic cell division is given below in unordered manner -
(i) Condensation of Chromosomes is completed
(ii) Chromosomes lose their identity as discrete elements
(iii) Sister chromatids separate
(iv) Initiation of the assembly of mitotic spindle​​
The correct order or steps for cell division is

(1) i → iv → iii → ii
(2) iv → i → iii → ii
(3) ii → i → iv → iii
(4) iv → iii → i → ii

25) At which stage of cell division these events occur ?

Initiation of assembly Spindle fibres attach to Chromosomes cluster at

of mitotic spindle kinetochores of chromosome opposite spindle poles

(1) Prophase Telophase Anaphase

(2) Metaphase Prophase Anaphase

(3) Prophase Anaphase Telophase

(4) Prophase Metaphase Telophase

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

26) How many from the followings are taxa ?

Leaves, Dogs, Cats, Wheat, Rocks, Eyes, Legs, Rice, Plants, Mammals, Animals, Wood

(1) Four
(2) Eight
(3) Seven
(4) Nine

27) Study the given table carefully and identify A, B, C and D.

(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)

28)

Recognise the following flow diagram and find correct option according to taxonomic hierarchy.

(1) 1–Polymoniales, 2–Sapindales, 3–Poales, 4–Dicotyledonae, 5–Monocotyledonae, 6–Angiospermae

(2) 1–Solanaceae, 2–Anacardiaceae, 3–Poaceae, 4–Polymoniales, 5–Poales, 6–Angiospermae
(3) 1–Solanum, 2–Mangifera, 3–Triticum, 4–Dicotyledonae, 5–Monocotyledonae, 6–Poales
(4) 1–Polymoniales, 2–Sapindales, 3–Poales, 4–Angiospermae, 5–Monocotyledonae, 6–Plantae

29) A cell examined during prophase of cell cycle contained 100 chromatids and 50 chromosomes.
What would be the number of chromatids and chromosomes in anaphase of this cell cycle ?

(1) 200 chromatids & 100 chromosomes

(2) 100 chromatids & 50 chromosomes
(3) 100 chromatids & 100 chromosomes
(4) 50 chromatids & 25 chromosomes

30) If the female gamete of an organism has 10 pg of DNA in its nucleus. How much DNA would a
diploid cell of same organism have in zygotene (A) diplotene (B) and anaphase-I(C)? (pg = Picogram)

(1) A = 40 pg; B = 20 pg; C = 10 pg

(2) A = 20 pg; B = 40 pg; C = 10 pg
(3) A = 40 pg; B = 40 pg; C = 40 pg
(4) A = 40 pg; B = 40 pg; C = 10 pg

31) Match the following

Column-I Column-II

a Metaphase i Initiation of condensation of chromosomal material

Nuclear envelop assembles around the

b Interphase ii
chromosomes clusters

c Telophase iii Chromosomes arranged at equatorial plate

d Prophase iv the phase between two successive M-phase

(1) a-i; b-ii; c-iii; d-iv
(2) a-iv; b-i; c-ii; d-iii
(3) a-iv; b-iii; c-i; d-ii
(4) a-iii; b-iv; c-ii; d-i

32) Select the incorrect match :

(1) G1 - phase — Synthesis of tubulin protein

(2) S-phase — Synthesis of histone
(3) G0-phase — Quiscent stage
(4) G2-phase — Pre-mitotic phase

33) Which of the following phase of mitosis is essentially the reverse of prophase in term of nuclear
changes ?

(1) S phase
(2) Anaphase
(3) Telophase
(4) Interphase

34) The graph given shows the change in DNA content during various phases (A to D) in a typical
mitotic cell cycle. Identify the phases and select the correct option

A B C D
 (1) G2 G1 S M

(2) G S G2 M

(3) G1 S G2 M

(4) M G1 S G2
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

35) Which cell Division produces haploid phase in life cycle of sexually reproducing organisms :-

(1) Amitosis
(2) Mitosis
(3) Meiosis
(4) Dinomitosis

36) Correct sequence of phases of cell cycle is–

(1) G2 → G1 → S → M
(2) G1 → S → G2 → M
(3) G2 → G1 → M → S
(4) G1 → G2→ M → S

37) How many chromosomes will the cell have at G1, after S and after G2 phase, if gamete formed by
it has 8 chromosome.

(1) 16, 16, 16

(2) 16, 16, 8
(3) 8, 8, 8
(4) 8, 16, 16

38) Centriole duplication occur during :-

(1) G1-phase
(2) S-phase
(3) G2-phase
(4) Anaphase

39) In which of the following system of classification each character (vegetative and sexual) is given
equal importance ?
(a) Artificial system
(b) Numerical system
(c) Natural system
(d) Practical classification

(1) a and d
(2) only b
(3) a, b and c
(4) a and b

40) Which taxon is not related to wheat :-

(1) Sapindales
(2) Poaceae
(3) Monocotyledonae
(4) Triticum

41) The relation of Solanaceae and Convolvulaceae with Polymoniales is similar to the relation
occuring in :-

(1) Felidae and Canidae with Carnivora

(2) Primata and Carnivora with Mammalia
(3) Amphibia and Reptilia with Chordata
(4) Solanum and Petunia with Solanaceae

42) Practical classification of plants is mainly based on..........

(1) Flower
(2) Their shape
(3) Their uses
(4) Vegetative characters

43) Most extensive metabolic diversity found in

(1) Members of green algae

(2) Members of fungi
(3) Members of prokaryotes
(4) Members of Plantae

44) Which one of the following fixes CO2 in to carbohydrates ?

(1) Rhizobium
(2) Lactobacillus
(3) [Link]
(4) Rhodospirillum

45) Reproduction is synonymous (same) with growth for which group of organisms ?

(1) Human
(2) Multicellular organisms
(3) Unicellular organisms
(4) All of the above

46) A person with blood group AB can receive blood from:

(1) A, B only
(2) AB only
(3) O only
(4) A, B, AB, O

47)

Read the following statements and choose the correct option

(a) Plasma consists of nearly 45% part of blood
(b) Fibrinogen, albumin & globulin are major proteins of plasma
(c) Albumin helps in osmotic balance & retention of water in plasma
(d) Plasma without the clotting factors is called lymph

(1) only b and c correct

(2) b, c & d correct
(3) a, b & c correct
(4) only c & d correct

48) A drop of each of the following is placed separately on glass slides. Which of them will not
coagulate?

(1) Blood from aorta

(2) Serum
(3) Blood plasma of human
(4) Blood from pulmonary vein

49)

Covering of Heart :-

(1) Renal capsule

(2) Pericardium
(3) Glisson's capsule
(4) Pleural membrane

50) Choose the incorrect statement about most commonly fluid used in body for transportation in
human :-

(1) This fluid is a special connective tissue.

(2) This fluid consisting a fluid matrix (45%).
(3) This fluid consisting formed elements.
(4) Matrix of this fluid is straw coloured and viscous fluid nearly 55%.

51) Which of the following is not a component of blood :-

(1) Lymph
(2) RBCs
(3) Plasma
(4) Platelets

52) Identify the A, B, C in following flow chart showing excretion process in mammals :-

(1) A = Ammonia ; B = Kidney

(2) A = Ammonia ; C = Liver
(3) A = Uric acid ; C = Kidney
(4) B = Liver ; C = Kidney

53) Read the following statements and choose the correct statements :
(a) Ammonia, urea, creatinine are the major forms of nitrogenous wastes.
(b) Uric acid is the most toxic form.
(c) Uric acid can be removed with a minimum loss of water.
(d) Ammonia is the most toxic form.

(1) Only c
(2) c + b
(3) c + d + a
(4) Except a and b

54) Which nodal tissue is responsible for initiating and maintaining the rhythmic contractile activity
of the heart

(1) SAN
(2) AVN
(3) AV bundle
(4) Purkinje fiber

55) Cardiac centre is located in

(1) Cerebrum
(2) Midbrain
(3) Spinal cord
(4) Medulla oblongata

56) How a cardiologist determine the heart rate of a person through ECG ?

(1) By counting the number of QRS complexes

(2) By observing duration between P and T wave
(3) By observing shape of QRS complexes
(4) By observing duration between Q wave and T wave

57) What is the osmolarity (in mosmol L–1) in the cortex and inner medulla region ?

(1) 300 and 600 respectively

(2) 600 and 300 respectively
(3) 1200 and 300 respectively
(4) 300 and 1200 respectively

58) Hepatic portal vein carries blood from

(1) Liver to intestine

(2) Liver to heart
(3) Intestine to liver
(4) Intestine to heart

59) During joint diastole of human heart under normal conditions

(1) Bicuspid and tricuspid valves are open

(2) Filling of ventricles does not occur
(3) Semilunar valves are open
(4) Ventricles pump the blood away from heart

60) One of the following lies in the wall of right atria ?

(1) Purkinje fibres

(2) Bundle of his
(3) SA node
(4) Chordae tendinae

61) Which is not reabsorbed actively in nephron ?

(1) Glucose
(2) Na+
(3) Amino acid
(4) Nitrogenous wastes

62) Incorrect related with angiotensin-II is

(1) It is a part of RAAS.
(2) It is a potent vasoconstrictor
(3) It is a potent vasodilator
(4) Its precursor is Angiotensin – I

63) The blood is pumped out by each ventricle during a cardiac cycle and it is called the ?

(1) Beat volume

(2) Cardiac output
(3) Stroke volume
(4) More than 1 correct

64) Adult human RBCs are enucleate. Which of the following statement(s) is/are most appropriate
explanation for this feature?
(a) They do not need to reproduce
(b) They are somatic cells
(c) They do not metabolize
(d) All their internal space is available for oxygen transport

(1) Only (d)

(2) Only (a)
(3) (a), (c) and (d)
(4) (b) and (c)

65) Blood pressure in the mammalian aorta is maximum during

(1) Diastole of the right atrium

(2) Systole of the left atrium
(3) Diastole of the right ventricle
(4) Systole of the left ventricle

66) Assertion (A) :- Persons with AB blood group are universal recipients.
Reason (R) :- Persons with AB blood group have no antibodies for these antigens in their blood
plasma.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

67) Assertion (A) :- Open circulatory system is present in arthropods and mollusca in which blood
pumped by heart passes through large vessels into open spaces.
Reason (R) :- Closed circulatory system is considered to be more advantageous as the flow of fluid
can be more precisely regulated.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

68) An enzyme complex (essentially required for blood clotting) that is formed by cascade process
involving a number of factors present in plasma, is

(1) Thrombin
(2) Fibrin
(3) Fibrinogen
(4) Thrombokinase

69)

Read the following

A. Purkinje fibres are made up of neurons
B. Heart is derived from Mesoderm
C. A-V septum is muscular whereas inter ventricular septum is fibrous
D. Second heart sound is associated with closure of semilunar valves
E. Parasympathetic activity increases heart rate
Choose correct option :

(1) A is correct only

(2) C and E are only incorrect
(3) B and D are correct
(4) All are correct

70) If SA node of a person become non functional then what would happen to renal plasma flow to
kidneys :

(1) increase
(2) decrease
(3) remain unchanged
(4) more then one option is correct

71) Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

(1) Atria and ventricle of same side are separated by thick muscular tissue
(2) In reptiles left atrium receives oxygenated blood from lungs.
(3) Open circulatory system is present in arthropods
(4) Inter–ventricular septum is thick- walled.

72) Assertion :- Blood flows in heart only in one direction i.e from atria to ventricles, and then to
pulmonary artery or Aorta.
Reason :- Opening between atria and ventricles and between ventricles and respective vessels are
provided with valves.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(4) Assertion and Reason are false

73) Which circulation provides nutrients and oxygen to cardiac muscle tissue?

(1) Pulmonary circulation

(2) Systemic circulation
(3) Lymphatic circulation
(4) Coronary circulation

74) Lymph consists of -

(1) RBCs, WBCs and plasma

(2) RBCs, proteins and platelets
(3) All components of blood except RBCs and some proteins
(4) WBCs and plasma

75) Which of the following is correctly matched:-

(1) Open circulatory system : Annelids are the simplest animals to have open circulatory system
Closed circulatory system : The blood pumped by the heart is always circulated through a closed
(2)
network of blood vessels
(3) Amphibians : Two separate circulatory pathways are present in these organisms
(4) Reptiles : Complete double circulation

76) Find the incorrect statement regarding mechanism of urine formation in man :

(1) Tubular secretion takes place in the PCT

(2) Aldosterone induces greater reabsorption of sodium
(3) The counter current systems contribute to diluting the urine.
(4) The glomerular filtration rate is about 125 ml. per minute

77) Among the given how many statements are incorrect :

(1) Nephrons are multicellular structure

(2) Glomerulus is not the part of renal tubule
(3) Renal tubule is the part of glomerulus
(4) A fine branch of renal artery forms the glomerulus

78) Find out the correct option :

(A) PCT is lined by simple cuboidal brush border epithelium.
(B) 70-80 percent of electrolytes and water are re-absorbed in PCT.
(C) Re-absorption is minimum in ascending limb of loop of Henle.
(D) DCT is also capable of re-absorption of HCO3– and selective secretion of sodium ions.

(1) A,B & C are correct

(2) A and D are correct
(3) Except C all are correct
(4) Except D all are incorrect

79) What will be the glomerular filtration pressure(GFP) of glomerular hydrostatic pressure(GHP) is
60 mm Hg, blood colloidal osmotic pressure, (BCOP) is 30 mmHg and capsular hydrostatic
pressure(CHP) is 20mmHg?

(1) 50 mm Hg
(2) 30 mm Hg
(3) 70 mm Hg
(4) 10 mm Hg

80) Blood vessel which carry blood towards glomerulus is :-

(1) Efferent arteriole

(2) Afferent arteriole
(3) Vasa recta
(4) Peritubular capillary

81) The conditional reabsorption of Na+ and water occurs in which part of Nephron ?

(1) PCT
(2) Loop of Henle
(3) Bowman's capsule
(4) DCT

82) Which of the following groups contains uricotelic animals only ?

(1) Reptiles, birds, land snails, insects

(2) Reptiles, birds, land snails, aquatic insects
(3) Amphibians, birds, land snails, insects
(4) Amphibians, reptiles, birds, insects

83) Medullary gradient is mainly developed due to :-

(1) NaCl and urea

(2) NaCl and glucose
(3) Glucose and urea
(4) Ammonia and glucose

84) Protonephridia are not the excretory structure in:-

(1) Platyhelminthes
(2) Rotifers
(3) Amphibians
(4) Cephalochordates

85) Dimensions of kidney with respect to length,width & thickness respectively are :-

(1) 10-12 cms × 5-7 cms × 2-3 cms

(2) 5-7 cms × 10-12 cms × 2-3 cms
(3) 2-3 cms × 5-7 cms × 10-12 cms
(4) 10-12 cms × 5-7 cms × 7-8 cms

86) During the process of haemodialysis the blood drained from a convenient artery is pumped into a
dialysing unit known as :-

(1) Artificial kidney

(2) Heart lung machine
(3) EEG
(4) ECG

87) In the given structure, which one have vascular smooth muscles ?

(1) P + Q
(2) Q + R
(3) R + S
(4) P + S

88) HCO3– is reabsorbed in which part of Nephron ?

(1) PCT, DCT

(2) PCT, Henle's loop
(3) DCT, Henle's loop
(4) Collecting duct, DCT

89) Glomerular filtrate contains :-

(1) Plasma without protein.

(2) Plasma without sugar.
(3) Blood with proteins but without cells.
(4) Blood without urea.

90) Given below are two statements :

Statement I : In the nephron, the descending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water and
permeable to electrolytes.
Statement II : The proximal convoluted tubule is lined by simple columnar brush border epithelium
and increases the surface area for reabsorption.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is tue
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 1 1 3 2 2 2 4 4 1 1 4 3 1 2 3 4 2 3 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 4 3 4 4 1 1 2 1 4 2 3 4 2 1 4 2 1 2 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 1 3 2 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 1 1 4 2 1 2 4 2 2 3 3 4 2 1 3 2 2 2 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 4 3 3 3 3 2 2 4 1 3 3 1 4 3 4 4 4 1 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 4 4 2 2

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 4 4 2 3 2 1 2 3 2 2 4 4 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 2 4 2 4 3 4 1 3 3 4 1 3 3 3 2 1 2 4 1
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 3 3 4 3 4 1 2 2 2 1 4 4 1 4 1 4 3 1 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 4 3 4 1 4 1 2 4 3 2 1 1 4 4 2 3 3 1 4 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 1 1 3 1 1 1 1 1 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Δp = Area of force time-graph = 0

2) Question Explanation:
The problem involves a gun firing bullets, and it asks for the force needed to prevent the gun
from recoiling. To stop recoil, the person must apply a force equal and opposite to the
momentum imparted to the bullets.

Concept Based:
This problem is based on Newton's Third Law of Motion and the conservation of momentum.
The momentum imparted to the bullets must be balanced by an equal and opposite momentum
on the gun. The rate of change of momentum gives the required force.

Formula Used:
To find the force, we use the formula:

Where is the change in momentum and is the time.

Since the bullets are fired at a rate of 5 bullets per second:

A. Mass of one bullet = 50 g = 0.05 kg

B. Velocity of the bullet= 300 m/s
C. Rate of firing = 5 bullets/sec

Calculation:

A. The momentum imparted to one bullet is:

A. The total momentum imparted per second (since 5 bullets are fired per second):

Total momentum per second = 5 x 15 = 75 kg

To prevent the gun from recoiling, the person needs to apply a force equal to the rate of change of
momentum:
F = 75N

Thus, the force the person must apply is 75 N.

Hence,
Option (1) is correct

3)
= 6 × 103 N
4)

5)

6)

7)

When BC = 0

When BC = 2m

8) Explain:
Find the tension in the string connecting the 4 kg and 6 kg blocks in an Atwood Machine
setup, where:
• 8 kg block is on one side of the pulley.
• 6 kg and 4 kg blocks are on the other side and connected by a separate string.
• The acceleration (a) of the system must be determined first
Concept:
• The system accelerates due to the net driving force from mass imbalance.
• Apply Newton's Second Law to find acceleration.
• Use force balance to find the tension in the string between 4 kg and 6 kg.
Formula Used:
1. Acceleration of the system:

2. Tension in the string connecting 4 kg and 6 kg blocks:

4g − T = 4a Calculation:
Step 1: Compute Acceleration

Step 2: Find Tension T

Using the equation 4g−T = 4a:

Convert 40 to have denominator 18:

Simplify:

9)
3T = 3 × g 3 T = 30 T = 10 N
T = mg = 10
10)

freq = 10 × ac = N (for lower block)

fmax = μ(5) (10) = 25 N
freq > fmax
so there will be slipping.

11) Maximum acceleration of block A,

aAmax = mg = 6 m/s2
Therefore required force, Fmax = (2+5) (6)
= 42 N

12) In balancing condition

13) Pseudo force or fictitious force Ffic = ma

Force of friction
f = μN = μma,

f ≥ mg
μmα ≥ mg

14) after 10 sec , for block A

fK = ma
µkmg = ma

a = µkg ⇒ µk = = 0.5

15) In ΔABC,
 ⇒ or AC = 20m
Frictional force acting on the block f = µmg cos30°

Work done by frictional force on the block,

Wf = f × AC × cos 180°

16) A = area under the curve

17) Power delivered in time T is

18)

19)
20) Weight of overhanging part of the chain

The weight acts at the centre of gravity of the overhanging part, i.e. , below the surface of
the table.

Gain in potential energy

∴ Work done = gain in potential energy = .

21) Explain : Earth revolving on circular path and required centripetal force is provided by
sun's gravitational attraction force
Concept : Centripetal force or dynamic of uniform circular motion
Formula : Fcentripetal = Fgravitation = mω2r
Fcen = mrω2
= (6 × 1024) × (2 × 10–7)2 × (1.5 × 108 × 103)
Fcen = 36 × 1021 N

22)

23)

T = mg cos θ =

T1 = mg cosθ + = 3 mg

T2 = mg cos 37° + [u2 – 2gℓ (1–cos37°)]

= +

= + 2 mg

= . =

24) Concept: Circular motion

Formula : T = mω2R
Visual Aid :
Mathematical Calculation : v = ωR
∴ For T1 → R. = 3L
T2 ⇒ R = 2 L
T3 ⇒ R = L
ω remain same for all particle
T1 = mω2L
T1 = 3 mw2L
T2 = T1 + mω2 R2
T2 = 3 mω2 L + 2 mω2L
T2 = 5 mω2L
T3 = T2 + mω2R
T3 = 5mω2L + mω2L
T3 = 6mω2L
T1 : T2 : T3 : 3 : 5 : 6
Correct option (4)
[Link]

25)

Explain :- M mass motion as performing circular conical pendulum. Angular velocity is given
and tension is asked.
Concept Conical Pendulum.

Formula & Visual Aid -

26)

T = mω2R

ω = 20 rad/s
 27)
ℓ→m

Mass of element 'day' is

Now, centripetal force required for this element.
dT = dmω2y
Integrating both sides :-

28)

29) mmanvman + mcartvcart = 0

80 ⋅ 5 + 200 ⋅ v = 0

30) Asking About:

Minimum velocity at the horizontal position required for complete vertical circular motion.
Concept:

A. The particle must have enough energy to reach the topmost point with the required minimum
velocity.
B. We apply the law of conservation of energy to determine the velocity at the horizontal position.

Formula:
Conservation of energy between the bottommost and horizontal positions:

Where:
velocity at the lowest point
velocity at the horizontal position
The minimum velocity at the lowest position required for complete motion is:

Calculation / Explanation:
Substituting into the energy equation:

Simplifying:

Final Answer: Option (4)

31) As velocity of centre of mass is zero so

⇒ m = 2kg

32) x = 3t – 4t2 + t3
V = 3 – 8t + 3t2
at t = 0 Vi = 3
at t = 4s, Vf = 3 – 8(4) + 3(4)2 = 19

= 1.5 × 10–3 × 22 × 16 = 528 mJ

33)

∴ Distance of COM

34)

35) Question Explanation :

A cart of mass M is tied to a rope of length 10 m, with the other end in the hands of a man of
mass . The cart and man are on a smooth surface. The goal is to find how far the man slips
before he and the cart meet.

Concept Based :
This problem involves the concept of the center of mass of a two-body system. Since there are
no external horizontal forces, the center of mass will remain stationary, and we solve for
displacement.

Formula Used :
We use the center of mass equation to solve for the position of the system's center of mass:

Where:

• m1 = (mass of the man),

• x1 = –x (distance the man slips),
• m2 = M (mass of the cart),
• x2 = 10 – x (distance the cart moves).
Since there are no external forces, the center of mass will not change position.

Calculation :
Step 1: Center of Mass
We know the center of mass doesn't move. Therefore, we set up the equation:

Step 2: Simplifying the Equation

First, calculate the total mass:

Now substitute into the equation:

Multiply through by to eliminate the denominator:

Simplify:

Step 3: Solve for x

Rearrange the equation:

Divide both sides by M:

Multiply both sides by 2:

20 = 3x
Solve for x:

Conclusion:

The distance the man will slip before he and the cart meet is meters.

Correct Answer:
Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

36)

initial momentum

after checking momentum in all 4 option

4th

in option 4th

37)

38) Impulse = change in momentum

∴ Area under f – t graph = ΔP

∴
= 12 Ns

39) Loss in PE between A and D = gain in KE between A and D

mg(h – 2r) = m(v2 – 0) (∵ KA = 0)
2
v = 2g(h – 2r) ...(i)
If the block is to complete the loop path then at D

v2 ≥ rg ...(ii)
From Eqs. (i) and (ii)
2g(h – 2r) ≥ rg
40) 1. Explanation (30 words):
The question asks for the ratio of the change in velocities of two masses m1 and m2 after a
collision. We need to determine the relationship between these changes.
2. Concept (20 words):
In an elastic collision, the change in velocity for each mass is proportional to the mass of the
other.
3. Formula:
In a one-dimensional elastic collision. the change in velocity is given by the following
equations:
For mass m1 :

For mass m2:

The ratio of changes in velocities:

4. Calculation in Minimum Steps:

From the formula, the ratio of the change in velocities is:

41) Explain : Particleof mass m moving with velocity along east strikes another identical mass
m moving with speed 2v along North and they fuse together after striking Now. we have to
calculate the velocity of mass 2m
Concept :- Both particles are colliding to each other so momentum will remain conserve
Formula :- m1u1 + m2u2 = m1v1 + m2v2

V' =

42)

It needs to cross maximum height. So at maximum height it is just at rest relative to wedge.

mu = 2mv, = + mgh

43) When the block is moving over wedge, let their common horizontal velocity be v
By the momentum conservation

mv0 = (m + M)v ..(i)

..(ii)
 ⇒

44) Centre of mass is towards heavier mass and bottom piece has more mass in comparison to
the handle piece.

45) Concept Based (Center of Mass of a System of Objects):

Since the discs are identical, we can treat their centers as point masses. The center of mass is
the weighted average of their positions.
Formula used:
The x-coordinate of the center of mass Xcm is:

Xcm =
Since the discs are identical, m1 = m2 = m3 = m, and the formula simplifies to:

Xcm =
They coordinate Ycm is:
Calculation:
• Disc 1 (top): Center at ( – R , R)
• Disc 2 (right): Center at (R, 0)
• Disc 3 (bottom): Center at ( – R, – R)

X – coordinate:

Y – coordinate:

Thus, the center of mass is at .

Answer:

The correct answer is Option 3:

CHEMISTRY

46)

dsp2 hybridised

47)

If Δ0 < P, confi. = = WFL & high spin complex

48)

(Answer 1)

49)

d5 (octahedral)

50)

II < III < I

51)

(Answer 1)

52)

(Answer 2)

53)

[Pt (en)2]Cl2

54)

Trisethylenediaminecobalt (III) sulphate

55)

[Co(NH3)3Cl3]

56)

(Answer 3)

57)

(Answer 3)

58)

both σ & π character

59)
CoCl3 . 3NH3

60)

d4 (in strong ligand filed)

61)

B(OCH3)3

62)

[Cr(CO)6]

63)

[Co(CN)6]–3

64)

(Answer 2)

65)

[CoSO4 (NH3)5]Br

66)

(Answer 2)

67)

[Ti(CO)6]2–

68)

Dichloro bis(ethylene diamine) cobalt (III) chloride

69)

PtCl4.4NH3

70)

coordination isomers
71)

NCERT Reference: Class XI, Part-ll, Page 326 & 327

72)

I→B, II→D, III→A, IV→C

73) AlCl3 + 3H2O → Al(OH)3 + 3HCl

74)

(Answer 4)

75)

Four 2c–2e bonds and two 3c–2e bonds

76) BF3 after back bonding → Planar

→ Geometry same
→ Bond angle same

77)

(Answer 3)

78)

Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

79)

Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

80)

Bond angle always increases

81)

(Answer 4)

82) 7N → 2s22p3
 83)

84)

As the oxidation number of Cl-atom increases from HClO to HClO4 (i.e., +1 to +7), the
possibility of getting H-atom as H+ ion by the rupture of O—H bond increases. Hence, the
correct order of acidity is.

85) : positive value of SRP, thus acting as a strong oxidising agent.

86) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 194

87) NCERT-XII (part-I), Pg. # 209

88) NCERT-XII (part-I), Pg. # 199

89)

Pb+2 > Pb+4

90)

(Answer 2)

BIOLOGY

91) NCERT PG. 168

92) NCERT PG. 168

93) NCERT Pg # 163

94) Question Explanation :

The question asks to identify the most "dramatic" period of the cell cycle.
Concept :
This question is based on M-phase (Mitosis).

Explanation:
"The M phase is the most dramatic period of the cell cycle involving a major reorganisation of
virtually all components of the cell."

Final answer : 3

95) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 163

96) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 163

97) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 162

98) Only human beings show self-consciousness.

99)

NCERT Pg. # 5

100) The correct answer is 2) Species.

Explanation: The species is the smallest unit of classification. It refers to a group of
organisms that can interbreed and produce fertile offspring. All organisms of the same species
share similar characteristics and genetic makeup, making it the most specific level in the
taxonomic hierarchy.

101)

Mycoplasma does not have cell wall

102)

Bacteria are the sole members of kingdom Monera

103)

NCERT

104)

NCERT

105)
 Phylogenetic classification is also called cladistic classification

106) Explanation -
A cell has 2n = 42 chromosomes then what will be number of chromosome during metaphase
:-

Solution:

A. During Metaphase in mitosis, the chromosomes are aligned at the equator of the cell. The
number of chromosomes remains the same as in the original cell.

Given that the cell has 2n = 42 chromosomes, during Metaphase, it will still have 42
chromosomes.

Hence,
Correct Answer: (2) 42

107)

In anaphase number of chromosome doubled

108) Morphology of chromosome Metaphase

Shape of chromosome Anaphase

109)

Amount of DNA remains same in mitosis and reduced in meiosis

110) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 246, Fig. # 15.8

111) Question Explanation :

This question is asking the biological significance of mitosis.

Concept :
This question is based on significance of mitosis.

Explanation : Mitosis plays a vital role in the growth of multicellular organisms, repair of
damaged tissues, and restoration of the nucleo-cytoplasmic ratio.
Final answer:4

112)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 121

113) O = Diploid cell / 40 chromosome and each chromosome has the DNA molecule.
 Number of DNA
chromosome molecule

G1 40 40

S 40 80

G2 40 80

Prophase 40 80

Metaphase 40 80

Anaphase 80 80

114) NCERT Pg. # 164,165,166

115)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 164,165, 166

116) NCERT, Pg. # 7

Leaves, Rocks, Eyes, Legs, Wood are not taxa

117)

NCERT

118)

NCERT

119)

Explanation

A. In prophase, the cell has 50 chromosomes, each with two chromatids, making a total of
100 chromatids.

B. During anaphase, the centromeres split, separating the sister chromatids.

Each chromatid now functions as an individual chromosome, leading to 100 chromosomes, but still
100 chromatids (since each chromosome is now single-chromatid).

Correct Answer: ✅ 3. 100 chromatids & 100 chromosomes

120)
Amount of DNA in gamete is 10 pg then amount of DNA in diploid cell is 40 pg at prophase 1.

121)

NCERT

122) NCERT Pg.#163

123) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 166

124)

NCERT

125)

Meiosis cell Division produces haploid phase in life cycle of sexually reproducing organisms

126)

NCERT

127) NCERT XI, Page # 164-165

128)

129)

NCERT XIth Page No.29,30

130) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 5

131) NCERT Pg. # 9,10

132) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 08 2nd Para.

133)

NCERT

134)
ALLEN Module

135) In unicellular organisms, growth and reproduction occur together — when the cell grows,
it divides to form two new cells. So, growth = reproduction.

136)

A, B, AB, O

137)

only b and c correct

138) NCERT Page No.- 104(old);

139)

Pericardium

140) NCERT Pg. # 193, 15.1.1

141) NCERT Pg. # 193

142)

B = Liver ; C = Kidney

143)

Except a and b

144)

(Answer 1)

145)

Medulla oblongata

146)

By counting the number of QRS complexes

147)

300 and 1200 respectively

148)

Intestine to liver

149)

Bicuspid and tricuspid valves are open

150)

(Answer 3)

151)

Nitrogenous wastes

152)

It is a potent vasodilator

153)

More than 1 correct

154)

(Answer 1)

155)

Systole of the left ventricle

156)

Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.

157) NCERT, Pg. # 197

158)

Thrombokinase
159)

B and D are correct

160)

(Answer 2)

161) Explanation :
Identify incorrect statement.

Concept :
Structure of Heart

Solution :
1. Incorrect : Atria and ventricle of same side are separated by thick muscular tissue.
2. Correct
3. Correct
4. Correct

Final Answer :
Option (1)

162) Explanation :
To evaluate Assertion and Reason.

Concept :
Blood vessels

Solution :
Assertion - Correct
Reason - correct
There is undialectical flow of blood atria to ventricle and ventricle to other vessels due to
presence of respective values between them which ensure theme is no backflow of blood.

Final Answer :
Option (1)

163) NCERT PG 286

164)

WBCs and plasma

165)

Closed circulatory system : The blood pumped by the heart is always circulated through a
closed network of blood vessels

166) NCERT Page No. 294

167) NCERT Page No.

168)

A,B & C are correct

169)

10 mm Hg

170)

Afferent arteriole

171)

(Answer 4)

172)

Reptiles, birds, land snails, insects

173)

NaCl and urea

174)

Amphibians

175)

10-12 cms × 5-7 cms × 2-3 cms

176)

Artificial kidney

177)
P+Q

178)

PCT, DCT

179)

Plasma without protein.

180)

Both Statement I and Statement II are false