10-08-2025

2401CMD303001250006 MD

PHYSICS

1) A body of mass 6 kg moves in a straight line according to the equation x = t3 – 75t

where x denotes the distance in metre and t the time in second. The force on the body at t = 4
second is :–

(1) 64 newton
(2) 72 newton
(3) 144 newton
(4) 36 newton

2) A ball is thrown vertically upwards with a certain velocity. Neglecting air resistance, identify the
wrong statement(s) regarding the motion of the ball.
(A) During the upward motion net force on the ball acts upwards.
(B) During the downward motion net force on the ball acts downwards.
(C) At the highest position no force acts on the ball.
(D) The net force on the ball always act in the downward direction.

(1) A, B
(2) B, C
(3) B, D
(4) A, C

3) Inertia means :-

(1) Resistance to uniform motion

(2) Resistance to rest
(3) Resistance to deform
(4) Resistance to change in its state of motion

4) A block of mass 10 kg is moving with an acceleration of 2 m/s2 on a rough surface as shown. The

value of coefficient of kinetic friction is:-

(1) 0.2
(2) 0.4
(3) 0.5
(4) 0.1
5) In given momentum-time graph is :-

(1) Force on particle is decreasing

(2) Force on particle is increasing
(3) Force on particle remains constant
(4) Force on particle is zero

6) A body of mass 1 kg crosses a point O with a velocity 60 ms–1. A force of 10 N directed towards O
begins to act on it. It will again cross O in :-

(1) 24 s
(2) 12 s
(3) 6 s
(4) will never return to O

7) The engine of a jet aircraft applies a thrust force of 105 N during take off and causes the plane to
attain a velocity of 1 km/sec in 10 sec. The mass of the plane after 10 sec from take off is (Neglect
the effect of gravity)

(1) 102 kg
(2) 103 kg
(3) 104 kg
(4) 105 kg

8) A force of 6N acts on a body at rest of mass 1 kg. During this time, the body attains a velocity of
30 m/s. The time for which the force acts on the body is-

(1) 10 seconds
(2) 8 seconds
(3) 7 seconds
(4) 5 seconds

9) Three forces are acting on a particle of mass m initially in equilibrium. If the 2 forces (R1 and R2)
are perpendicular to each other and suddenly the third force (R3) is removed, then the acceleration
of the particle is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

10) A particle moves in xy-plane under the influence of a force such that its linear momentum

where A and k are constants. The angle between the force and the
momentum is

(1) 0°
(2) 30°
(3) 45°
(4) 90°

11) A cricket ball of mass 150 g has an initial velocity m/s and a final velocity
m/s after being hit. The change in momentum (final momentum-initial momentum) is (in
kg m/s)

(1) zero
(2)
(3)
(4)

12) A body with mass 5 kg is acted upon by a force . If its initial velocity at t = 0 is
, the time at which it will just have a velocity along the Y-axis is:

(1) never
(2) 10 s
(3) 2 s
(4) 15 s

13) Force-time graph for the motion of a body is shown in figure. Change in linear momentum

between 0 to 8 s is:

(1) Zero
(2) 4 N-s
(3) 8 N-s
(4) 6 N-s

14) A block of metal weighing 1.5 kg is resting on a frictionless plane. It is struck by a jet releasing
water at a rate of 3 kg/s with a speed of 10 m/s. The initial acceleration of the block will be :-

(1) 20 m/s2
(2) 5 m/s2
(3) 10 m/s2
(4) 15 m/s2

15) A stone is accelerated upwards by a cord whose breaking strength is three times the weight of
the stone. The maximum acceleration with which the stone can be moved up without breaking the
cord is :

(1) g
(2) 2g
(3) 3g
(4) 4g

16) The average force necessary to stop a hammer with 25 N-s momentum in 0.05 s is :-

(1) 125 N
(2) 500 N
(3) 50 N
(4) 25 N

17) A force time graph for a linear motion is shown in Fig., where the segments are rectangular. The

linear momentum gained between 0 and 6 seconds is :-

(1) –2 Ns
(2) zero Ns
(3) +2 Ns
(4) 4 Ns

18) A disc of mass 1·0 kg kept floating horizontally in air by firing bullets of mass 0·05 kg each
vertically at it, at the rate of 10 per second. If the bullets rebound with the same speed, the speed

with which these are fired will be–

(1) 0·098 m/s

(2) 0·98 m/s
(3) 9·8 m/s
(4) 98·0 m/s

19) In given force-time graph : find impulse on particle ?

(1) 1.6 NS
(2) 0.16 NS
(3) 0.8 NS
(4) 0.08 NS

20) A player caught a cricket ball of mass 150 g moving at a speed of 20 m/s. If the catching process
is completed in 0.1 s, the force exerted by the ball on the hand of the player is equal to :-

(1) 150 N
(2) 30 N
(3) 3 N
(4) 300 N

21) Action reaction pair are :-

(1) equal in magnitude

(2) act in opposite direction
(3) act on different objects
(4) all above are correct

22) A small block of mass m is placed on an inclined plane of mass M as shown in figure. What
should be the acceleration 'a' given to the system so that the block does not slide on the inclined

plane ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
23) A uniform rope of length L resting on a frictionless horizontal surface is pulled at one end by a
force F. What is the tension in the rope at a distance from the end where the force is applied.

(1) F
(2)
(3) F/2
(4)

24) Which figure represents the correct F.B.D. of rod of mass m as shown in figure :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

25) A liquid of mass 1 kg is filled in a flask shown in figure. The force exerted by flask on liquid (g =

10 ms–1) :-

(1) 10 N
(2) greater than 10 N
(3) less than 10 N
(4) zero

26) A lift is moving downwards with an acceleration a, the force exerted by the man of mass m on
the floor of lift is (a < g) :-

(1) ma
(2) ma + mg
(3) mg – ma
(4) ma – mg
27) A block of mass 10 kg is placed on smooth surface as shown in figure find acceleration of

the block :-

(1) 1 m/s2
(2) 7 m/s2
(3) 4 m/s2
(4) 3 m/s2

28) A mass M is suspended by a rope from a rigid support at A as shown in figure. Another rope is
tied at the end B and it is pulled horizontally with a force F. If the rope AB makes an angle θ with the

vertical, then the tension in the string AB is:-

(1) F sin θ
(2) F/sin θ
(3) F cos θ
(4) F/cos θ

29) If the system is in equilibrium then value of T1 and T2 is :–

(1) 5N, 5N
(2)
(3) 5 N,
(4)
30) What is the tension T2 in the system in equilibrium shown in fig.-

(1) 5 N
(2) 5 kg wt.
(3) 1 N
(4) 19.6 N

31) A heavy rope of mass m and length ℓ is placed on a smooth table. It is pulled at both ends by
applying force F of equal magnitude as shown. Tension in the rope at point

(1) A is 3F/4
(2) B is F/2
(3) A is F
(4) B is 2F

32) In figure , if a block of a mass m is displaced by x when there is no friction, the maximum

acceleration produced in the block would be

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33)

Referring figure A and B :-

(1) reading of spring balance in (A) is 8 g and in (B) is also 8 g
(2) reading of spring balance in (A) is 8 g and in (B), it is less than 8 g
(3) reading in (A) is less than 8 g and in (B), it is 8 g
(4) reading in both (A) and (B) is less than 8 g

34) A block of mass 10 kg is suspended through two light spring balances as shown in the figure.

(1) Both the scales will read 10 kg.

(2) Both the scales will read 5 kg.
(3) The upper scale will read 10 kg and the lower zero.
(4) The reading may be anything but their sum will be 10 kg.

35) Two blocks of mass 4 kg and 3 kg are connected by a rope of mass 1 kg. A vertical force of 120 N
is applied on 4 kg block as shown, then what will be the tension at the middle point of the rope :-

(1) 52.5 N
(2) 80.5 N
(3) 35 N
(4) 65.5 N
36) A string of negligible mass going over a clamped pulley of mass m supports a block of mass M as

shown in the figure. The force on the pulley by the clamp is given by

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

37) A lift is moving upwards with an acceleration of 2m/sec2. Inside the lift a 4 kg block is kept on
the floor. On the top of it, 3 kg block is placed and again a 2kg block is kept on the 3kg block.

Calculate contact force between 2kg block and the 3kg block.

(1) 24 N
(2) 108 N
(3) 36 N
(4) 6 N

38) Two bodies of mass 4 kg and 6 kg are attached to the ends of a string passing over a pulley. A 4
kg mass is attached to the table top by another string. The tension in this string T1 is equal to :-

(1) 19.6 N
(2) 25 N
(3) 10.6 N
(4) 10 N

39) A force F is applied on block A as shown in figure. The contact force between the blocks A and B
and between the blocks B and C respectively are (Assume frictionless surface) :
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) A block is placed on a rough horizontal surface as shown in the figure. The frictional force acting

on the block is

(1) 25 N
(2) Zero
(3) 5 N
(4) 50 N

41) What is the maximum value of the force F such that the block shown in the arrangement does

not move :-

(1) 20 N
(2) 10 N
(3) 12 N
(4) 15 N

42) A block takes twice as much time to slide down a 45° rough inclined plane as it takes to slide
down a similar smooth inclined plane. Then coefficient of friction is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) In the system shown in figure. Force of friction between the two blocks is :
(1) 6 N
(2) 10 N
(3) 2 N
(4) Zero

44) A block of 5 kg is placed on horizontal plane. Cofficient of static and kinetic friction are 0.6 and
0.4 respectively. Block is just moves when 30 N force is applied, then after some time the
acceleration of the block is :

(1) 2 m/sec2
(2) 6 m/sec2
(3) 3 m/sec2
(4) 4 m/sec2

45) A block A of mass m is kept at rest against a rough vertical wall by applying a horizontal force F.
Minimum value of F to keep the block in equilibrium is Fm, then find the acceleration of block when

(1) 4 m/s2
(2) 8 m/s2
(3) 10 m/s2
(4) 1 m/s2

CHEMISTRY

1) In which of the following ionization processes, the bond order has increased and the magnetic
behaviour has changed?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

2) The set of d orbitals which does not contain any d orbital which is involved in hybridisation of
central atom in

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) dxy, dzx, dyz

3) Which of the following two are isostructural :-

–
(1) XeF2, IF2
(2) NH3, BF3
(3)
(4) PCl5, ICl5

4) The octet rule is not valid for the molecule :-

(1) CO2
(2) H2O
(3) O2
(4) NO

5) Between the two compounds shown below, the vapour pressure of B at a particular temperature is
expected to be :

(1) higher than that of A

(2) lower than that of A
(3) same as that of A
(4) can be higher or lower depending upon the size of the vessel

6) In CO2, SO2, SiO2 each central atom is covalently bonded with :-

(1) 2,2,4 oxygen atoms respectively

(2) 2,2,2 oxygen atoms respectively
(3) 2,4,4 oxygen atoms respectively
(4) 4,4,4 oxygen atoms respectively

7) Correct statement regarding molecules SF4, CF4 and XeF4 are

(1) 2,0 and 1 lone pairs of central atom respectively

(2) 1,0 and 1 lone pairs of central atom respectively
(3) 0,0 and 2 lone pairs of central atom respectively
(4) 1,0 and 2 lone pairs of central atom respectively

8) Incorrect order of bond angle is

(1) BCl3 = AlCl3 = GaCl3
⊕
(2) NO2 > BF3 > CCl4
(3) H2O > H2S > H2Se
(4) NH3 < PH3 < AsH3

9) Which of the following has the minimum C–C bond length ?

(1) C2H2
(2) C2H4
(3) C2H6
(4) All are same

10) Which of the following will have highest bond order?

(1) NO+
(2) CO+
(3)
(4) O2

11) In the following which of the two are paramagnetic

(a) N2 (b) CO (c) B2 (d) NO2
Correct answer is :-

(1) a and c
(2) b and c
(3) c and d
(4) b and d

12) Which of the following is not correctly matched ?

Bond angle Number of bond angles

(1) CH4 → 109°28' → 6

(2) SF6 → 90° → 12

(3) IF7 → 90° → 10

(4) IF5 → 90° → 8

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

13) Boiling point of p-nitrophenol is greater than that of o-nitrophenol, because -

(1) behaviour of NO2 group at p-position is differ from that of o-position

(2) Intramolecular hydrogen bonding take place in p- nitrophenol
(3) Intermolecular hydrogen bonding take place in p-nitrophenol
(4) Molecular weight of p-nitrophenol is greater than that of o-nitrophenol

14) Which of the following has lowest bond energy ?

(1)

(2)

(3) – O – O –
(4) F – F

15) Correct representation of PF2Cl3 is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
16) Match the following columns and choose the correct option from the codes given below :

Column-I Column-II

(i) PCl5

(A)

(ii)

(B)

(C)

(iii) SF6

(iv) BF3

(D)
(1) A–i; B–ii; C–iii; D–iv
(2) A–ii; B–iii; C–iv; D–i
(3) A–iv; B–ii; C–i; D–iii
(4) A–iii; B–i; C–ii; D–iv

17) Which of the following are correctly classified?

Intermolecular H-bonding Intramolecular H-bonding

 (1) HF H2O

(2) CH3OH HF

(3) H2O

(4) HF

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

18) According to VBT, which of the following overlapping can result in π-type covalent bond in O2
molecule formation, when Z-axis is internuclear axis ?
(I) 2s – 2s (II) 2px – 2px (III) 1s – 1s
(IV) 2py – 2py (V) 2pz – 2pz

(1) I, III
(2) II, V
(3) II, IV
(4) IV, V

19) In which of the excitation state of chlorine ClF3 is formed:-

(1) In ground state

(2) In third excitation state
(3) In first excitation state
(4) In second excitation state

20)

Boron cannot form which one of the following anions ?

–
(1) B(OH)4
–
(2) BO2
3–
(3) BF6
–
(4) BH4

21) What will be the number of σ & π bonds in CH3 COOH.

(1) 1,7
(2) 5,2
(3) 7,1
(4) 3,2

22) The bonds present in N2O5 are

(1) Only ionic

(2) Covalent, ionic
(3) Covalent, co-ordinate
(4) Only covalent

23)

Out of XeF6, CH4 and SF4 the molecules having regular geometry are:

(1) XeF6 only

(2) XeF6 and SF4
(3) CH4 only
(4) CH4 and SF4

24) Valency expresses:

(1) total electrons in an atom

(2) atomicity of an element
(3) oxidation number of an element
(4) combining capacity of an element

–
25) In NO3 ion number of bond pair and lone pair of electrons on nitrogen atom are

(1) 2,2
(2) 3,1
(3) 1,3
(4) 4,0

26) Which of the following bonds will Have directional character :-

(1) Ionic bond

(2) Metallic bond
(3) Covalent bond
(4) Both covalent & metallic

27) Which of the following species are hypervalent?

(1) PCl5, (2) BF3, (3) XeF2, (4) CO32–

(1) 1,2,3
(2) 1,3
(3) 3,4
(4) 1,2

28) Nucleus of an element contains 9 protons, its valency would be :

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 5

29) Maximum covalency of fluorine atom is

(1) 1
(2) 3
(3) 5
(4) 7

30)

Select the correct order for dipole moment?

(1) NH3 > NCl3

(2) XeF2 = XeF4 < SO2
(3) P(CH3)2 (CF3)3 < P (CF3)2(CH3)3
(4) 1 & 2 both are correct

31) The correct order of dipole moment is :-

(1) CH3Cl < CH2Cl2 < CHCl3 < CCl4

(2) CH3Cl > CH2Cl2 > CHCl3 > CCl4
(3) CH2Cl2 < CHCl3 < CH3Cl < CCl4
(4) None

32)

Which of the following true order of bond energy :-

(1) Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2

(2) Br2 > Cl2 > F2 > I2
(3) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2
(4) I2 > Br2 > Cl2 > F2

33) Which of the following has pπ – dπ bonding

–
(1) NO3
 –2
(2) SO3
–3
(3) BO3
–2
(4) CO3

34) Which of the following are isoelectronic and isostructural NO3–, CO3–2, ClO3–, SO3

– –2
(1) NO3 , CO3
–
(2) SO3, NO3
– –2
(3) ClO3 , CO3
–2
(4) CO3 , SO3

35) The correct order of increasing C—O bond length of CO, CO32—, CO2 is :

2–
(1) CO3 < CO2 < CO
2–
(2) CO2 < CO3 < CO
2–
(3) CO < CO3 < CO2
2–
(4) CO < CO2 < CO3

36)

Two nodal planes are present in :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

37) Match the Column: (For molecular geometry)

Column-I Column-II

(a) SF4 (P) Tetrahedral

(b) BrF3 (Q) Pyramidal

(c) BrO3– (R) See-saw

(d) NH4+ (S) T-shape(Bent T)

(1) a–P, b–Q, c–R, d–S
(2) a–S, b–R, c–P, d–Q
(3) a–R, b–S, c–Q, d–P
(4) a–Q, b–S, c–R, d–P

38) For which of the following molecule significant ?

a b c d
(1) Only (c)
(2) (c) and (d)
(3) Only (d)
(4) (a) and (b)

39) Hybridised states of carbon in graphite and diamond are respectively

(1) sp3, sp3

(2) sp3, sp2
(3) sp2, sp2
(4) sp2, sp3

40) Which of the following hydrogen bonds is the strongest

(1) F–H.....F
(2) O–H.....O
(3) O–H.....F
(4) O–H.....N

41) Stability of species and increases in the order of :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42)

List–I List–II

(P) XeF4 (1) sp3d hybridised with 2 lone pair on central atom

(Q) BrF5 (2) sp3d2 hybridised with 2 lone pair on central atom

(R) ClF3 (3) sp3 hybridised with 1 lone pair on central atom
 (S) (4) sp3d2 hybridised with 1 lone pair on central atom

(1) P → 1;Q → 2;R → 3;S → 4

(2) P → 2;Q → 4;R → 1;S → 3
(3) P → 2;Q → 4;R → 3;S → 1
(4) P → 3;Q → 1;R → 4;S → 2

43)

p-p overlapping will be observed in the molecule of :-

(1) HCl
(2) H2
(3) F2
(4) HF

44) Which of the following species is non-polar (μnet = 0) ?

(1) NH3
(2) CH3F
(3) H2O

(4)

45) Which one of the following species do not have sp2 hybridisation.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

BIOLOGY

1) The cell wall of green algae is made up of

(1) Cellulose and lignin

(2) Cellulose and pectin
(3) Inner layer of pectose and outer layer of cellulose
(4) Inner layer of cellulose and outer layer of pectose

2) Floridean strach is stored food in

(1) Green algae
(2) Brown algae
(3) Red algae
(4) Blue green algae

3) Parasitic fungi on mustard causing white spot/rust of leaves is :-

(1) Albugo
(2) Mucor
(3) Colletrotrichum
(4) Neurospora

4) In mosses asexual reproduction occurs by :-

(1) Fragmentation and budding in the secondary protonema

(2) Gemmae and adventious bud formation
(3) Gemmae and tubers formation
(4) By multiflagellate spores formation

5) Recognise the given figure and find out correct statement for it. (i) It is a
member of Rhodophycea
(ii) Oogamous type reproduction occur.
(iii) Diplontic life cycle present
(iv) It posses chlorophyll a and c as major pigment.

(1) (i), (ii) are correct

(2) (ii), (iii), (iv) are correct
(3) (i), (iii), (iv) are correct
(4) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) are correct

6)

Pyrenoid contain-

(1) Polysaccharide + lipid

(2) Starch + Lipid
(3) Protein + Starch
(4) Starch + Glycogen
7) Which of the following belong to the same kingdom?

(1) Mycoplasma and Euglena

(2) Golden algae and Green algae
(3) Toadstool and Albugo
(4) Blue green algae and Red algae

8)

Select the correct statement among following :

(a) Mosses prevent soil erosion by reducing impact of falling rain.
(b) Zygote undergo mitotic divisions to form a sporophyte, in life cycle of bryophytes.
(c) The thallus of marchantia is dorsiventral flat (liver like) and closely appressed to soil/substratum.
(d) Sporophyte of mosses is consists of foot, seta and capsule.

(1) a & b only

(2) a, b & c only
(3) b, c & d only
(4) a, b, c & d

9) Photosynthetic pigments common to all algae

(1) Chlorophyll b and carotene

(2) Chlorophyll a and b
(3) Chlorophyll a and carotene
(4) Chlorophyll and xanthophyll

10) Which of the following characters for algae are incorrect from given characters ?
(i) At least a half of the total carbon dioxide fixation on earth is carried out by algae through
photosynthesis.
(ii) Being photosynthetic they decrease the level of dissolved oxygen in their immediate
environment.
(iii) Many species of Porphyra, Laminaria and Sargassum are used by space travellers as food.
(iv) Certain freshwater brown and red algae produce large amounts of hydrocolloids.
(v) Agar obtained from Gelidium and Gracilaria.
(vi) Chlorella and Spirulina are used as food supplements by space travellers.

(1) (i), (ii), (v) and (vi)

(2) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(3) (ii), (iii) and (v)
(4) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

11) Choose the wrong statement :

(1) Yeast is unicellular and useful in fermentation

(2) Penicillium is multicellular and produces antibiotics
(3) Neurospora is used in the study of biochemical genetics
(4) Morels and truffles are poisonous mushrooms

12) The major pigments in green algae are ________ and ________; and stored food is _________.

(1) Chl a, Chl d, Starch

(2) Chl a, Chl c, Floridean starch
(3) Chl a, Chl b, Starch
(4) Chl a, Chl c, mannitol

13) Select the odd one w.r.t. bryophytes

(1) Protonema
(2) Vascular tissues
(3) Rhizoids
(4) Capsule

14) Gemma cups are

a. green, multicellular, buds responsible for sexual reproduction
b. develops into small receptacles called gemma cups
c. gemma cups are located on thalli
d. gemma detaches from body to germinate into new plant

(1) all are true

(2) a,b,c are true
(3) a,c,d are true
(4) b,c,d are true

15) Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding bryophytes?

(1) They are dependent on water for sexual reproduction.

(2) They usually occur in damp, humid and shaded localities.
(3) The main plant body is diploid.
(4) They play an important role in plant succession on bare rocks.

16) Assertion (A): Bryophytes are also called amphibians of the plant kingdom.
Reason (R): These plants can live in soil but are dependent on water for sexual reproduction.

(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
(3) If Assertion is true and Reason is false
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false
17) Identify given plant diagram and label its parts:

(1) Funaria, A = gametophyte B = sporophyte

(2) Sphagnum, A = gametophyte B = sporophyte
(3) Funaria, A = sporophyte B = gametophyte
(4) Sphagnum, A = sporophyte B = gametophyte

18) Compared to liverworts, the sporophyte of mosses is generally:

(1) Less complex and short-lived

(2) More elaborate with a well-developed foot, seta and capsule
(3) Absent
(4) Independent of the gametophyte

19) Which of the following statement is false for Funaria, Polytrichum and Sphagnum.

(1) Their main plant body is gametophytic.

(2) They have elaborate mechanism for spore dispersal.
(3) They have tracheids in xylem.
(4) They have multicellular, branched rhizoids.

20) Find out the odd statement from following statements :

(1) Red sea is red due to Rhodophyceae.

(2) Fucoxanthin provide brown colour to Phaeophyceae.
(3) Chlorophyll a and Chlorophyll b are found in Chlorophyceae.
(4) Cell wall in all algae primarily contain cellulose.

21) How many of algae given below show oogamy?

Spirogyra, Volvox, Fucus, Polysiphonia

(1) Four
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) One

22) Which of the following statements is not correct regarding the Class Ascomycetes?
(1) Conidia are the asexual spores produced endogenously on conidiophores.
(2) Ascospores are the sexual spores produced endogenously in asci.
(3) Aspergillus, Neurospora and Claviceps are Ascomycetes fungi.
(4) Mycelium is generally branched and septate in Ascomycetes.

23) Match the Column-I with Column-II :

Column-I Column-II

a Colonial form i Ulothrix

b Filamentous ii Volvox

c Unicellular iii Chlamydomonas

d Kelps iv Massive plant bodies

Choose the correct answer from option given below :-

a b c d

(1) i ii iii iv

(2) ii i iv iii

(3) iv i iii ii

(4) ii i iii iv
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

24) Statement-I :- Bacteria are the sole members of the kingdom monera.
Statement-II :- The cyanobacteria have chlorophyll a similar to green plants and are photosynthetic
autotrophs.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

25)

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Cyanobacteria that are referred to as blue green algae are not "algae" anymore.
Reason (R) : All unicellular prokaryotes are placed in kingdom Monera and algae are placed in
kingdom Plantae
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :
(1) Both (A) & (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
(4) Both (A) & (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

26) Match the column-I with column-II

Column-I Column-II

Fusion between
one large non
motile female
(a) Zoospores (i)
gamete and a
smaller motile
male gamete.

Flagellated
(b) Isogamous (ii) (Motile) Asexual
spors

Gametes can be
(c) Anisogamous (iii) flagellated and
similar in size

Fusion of two
(d) Oogamous (iv) gamete dissimilar
in size

Choose the correct answer from the option given below :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

27) Mosses and ferns are found in moist and shady places because both _____

(1) Require presence of water for fertilization

(2) Do not need sunlight for photosynthesis
(3) Depend for their nutrition on micro-organism which can survive only at low temperature
(4) Can not compete with sun loving plants

28) __________ is used as packing material for transhipment of living material, because of their
capacity to hold water

(1) Selaginella
(2) Sphagnum
(3) Salvinea
(4) Sargassum

29) Choose the incorrect statement from following:

(1) Dinoflagellates have stiff cellulose plates on the outer surface

(2) Euglenoids have two flagella, one lies longitudinally and the other transversely
(3) Slime mould's spores are dispersed by air currents
(4) In diatoms the cell walls form two overlapping shells

30) Which of the following cell organelle is important for osmoregulation in some protists?

(1) Golgi apparatus

(2) Contractile vacuole
(3) Mitochondrion
(4) Sap vacuoles

31) Match the column-I with column-II and choose correct answer :-

Column-I Column-II

(P) Ciliated protozoans (i) Pseudopodia

(Q) Sporozoans (ii) Sleeping sickness

(R) Flagellated protozoans (iii) Paramecium

(S) Amoeboid protozoans (iv) Malarial parasite

(1) P-iii, Q-iv, R-i, S-ii
(2) P-iii, Q-i, R-iv, S-ii
(3) P-iii, Q-ii, R-iv, S-i
(4) P-iii, Q-iv, R-ii, S-i

32) Archaebacteria are special since they live in most harsh habitat such as

(1) Extreme salty areas

(2) Hot springs
(3) Marshy areas
(4) All the above

33) Which of the following group of organisms have no position in five kingdom system of
classification ?

(1) Vibrio, Aspergillus

(2) Spirulina, Microcystis and Ustilago
(3) Halophiles, thermoacidophiles
(4) Lichens, viruses and viroids

34) The plant group that produces spores and embryo but lacks vascular tissues and seeds is

(1) Pteridophyta
(2) Rhodophyta
(3) Bryophyta
(4) Phaeophyta

35) In Bryophytes what is absent:-

(1) Embryo formation

(2) Fertilization
(3) Motile gametes
(4) True roots and vascular tissue

36) Select the incorrect match

(1) Rhizoids-n
(2) Gemmae-n
(3) Foot-n
(4) Seta-2n

37) In liverworts asexual reproduction takes place by

(1) Gemmae and fragmentation of thalli

(2) Fragmentation and zoospores
(3) Gemmae formation and spores formation
(4) Isogamy and anisogamy

38) Which of the following not belongs to liverworts :-

(1) Riccia
(2) Marchantia
(3) Funaria
(4) Porella

39) Identify the statement that most accurately describes the plant shown in the given figure :
(1) This the male prothallus of Marchantia; A is antheridiophore and B is Gemma cup
(2) This the female prothallus of Marchantia; A is archegoniophore and B is Gemma cup
(3) This the male prothallus of Sphagnum; A is antheridiophore and B is Gemma cup
(4) This the female prothallus of spahgnum; A is archegoniphore and B is Gemma cup

40) Read the following statements

(A) Spore mother cells undergo reduction division to produce haploid spores
(B) They play an important role in plant succession on barren rocks
(C) They prevent soil erosion
(D) Sex organs are multicellular.
(E) Have gametophytic protonema
Above statements is/are related to

(1) Pteridophyta
(2) Bryophyta
(3) Gymnosperm
(4) Angiosperm

41) Given below are two Statement –

Statement-I : Bacteria shows the most extensive metabolic diversity.
Statement-II : In diatoms the call wall form two thin overlapping shell, which fit together as in a
soap box.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.

42) Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct option –

List-I List-II

A Slime moulds (i) Production of biogas

B Methanogens (ii) Parasitic fungi on mustard

C Albugo (iii) Cr-Jacob disease

D Prions (iv) Saprophytic protists

(1) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(iii)
(2) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(ii)
(3) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iii)
(4) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(iv)

43) Select the incorrect match pair –

(1) Chlamydomonas, Chlorella → Kingdom Protista

(2) Red dinoflagellates → Gonyaulax
(3) Puccinia → Smut Fungi
(4) Alternaria, Trichoderma → Deuteromycetes

44) Which among the following statement is incorrect

(1) Lichens are very good pollution indicators.

(2) A few members of kingdom protista are autotrophic.
(3) Fungi constitutes a unique kingdom of heterotrophic organisms only.
(4) Members of phycomycetes are found growing on dung and are known as sac fungi.

45) Match the List I with List II.

List I List II

Formation of fruiting
A. Diatoms I.
bodies.

B. Slime moulds II. Chief producers in ocean.

Stiff cellulose plates on

C. Euglenoids III.
outer surface.

D. Gonyaulax IV. Presence of pellicle

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(3) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(4) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

46) Mitral valve in mammals guards the opening between :-

(1) Right atrium and Right ventricle

(2) Left atrium and Left ventricle
(3) Right atrium and Left ventricle
(4) Left atrium and Right ventricle

47) The pacemaker of heart is :-

(1) AV node
(2) SA node
(3) Bundle of His
(4) Tricuspid valve

48) Origin of heartbeat and its conduction is represented by :-

(1) SA node→AV node→Bundle of His→Purkinje fibres

(2) Purkinje fibres→AV node→SA node→Bundle of His
(3) SA node→Purkinje fibres→AV node→Bundle of His
(4) AV node→Bundle of His→SA node→Purkinje fibres

49) Hepatic portal system starts from :-

(1) Digestive system to liver

(2) Kidney to liver
(3) Liver to heart
(4) Liver to kidney

50) In the measurement of blood pressure 120 mmHg is the (a) pressure and 80 mmHg is the (b)
pressure. What are the (a) and (b) ?

a b

(1) Diastolic Systolic

(2) Diastolic Diastolic

(3) Systolic Diastolic

(4) Systolic Systolic

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

51) 6–8 percent part of the plasma consists of :-

(1) Water
(2) Inorganic substance
(3) Proteins
(4) Blood cell

52) Least number of white blood corpuscles are :-

(1) Neutrophils
(2) Basophils
(3) Monocytes
(4) Eosinophils
53) Agranulocytes are :-

(1) Basophils, neutrophils

(2) Lymphocyte, basophils
(3) Monocyte, eosinophils
(4) Monocyte, lymphocyte

54) Coagulation of lymph is :-

(1) Faster than blood

(2) Not possible
(3) Slower than blood
(4) A passive process

55) Heart beat is accelerated by :-

(1) Parasympathetic nervous system, acetylcholine

(2) Parasympathetic nervous system, adrenaline
(3) ANS, acetylcholine
(4) ANS, adrenaline

56) First heart sound 'lubb' is produced by :-

(1) Closure of bicuspid and tricuspid valves

(2) Opening of bicuspid and tricuspid valves
(3) Closure of aortic and pulmonary semilunar valves
(4) Opening of aortic and pulmonary semilunar valves

57) Which of the following statement is correct regarding pulmonary artery ?

(1) It carries deoxygenated blood from heart to lungs.

(2) It carries deoxygenated blood from lungs to heart.
(3) It carries oxygenated blood from heart to lungs.
(4) It carries oxygenated blood from lungs to heart

58) Clot is formed mainly of a network of threads called :-

(1) Fibrinogen
(2) Prothrombin
(3) Thrombin
(4) Fibrin

59) In amphibian and reptiles :-

(1) Left atrium receive deoxygenated blood

(2) Right atrium receive oxygenated blood
(3) Left atrium receive oxygenated blood
(4) Right and left atria both receive oxygenated blood

60) The ventricle opens into a sac like structure on the ventral side of the heart is called :-

(1) Conus arteriosus

(2) Sinus venosus
(3) Dorsal aorta
(4) Renal portal vein

61)

Cardiac output cannot be increased by :-

(1) Sympathetic signal

(2) Adrenaline hormone
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Parasympathetic signal

62) 1st and 2nd heart sound due to respectively :-

(1) Closure of semilunar valves, AV valves

(2) Closure of AV valves, Semilunar valves
(3) Closure of Dorsal aorta and Pulmonary Artery
(4) Closure of Tricuspid valve and Bicuspid valve

63) People who have migrated from the planes to an area adjoining Rohatang Pass about six months
back :

(1) have more RBCs and haemoglobin

(2) are not physically fit to play games like football.
(3) suffer from altitude sickness with symptoms like nausea, fatigue, etc.
(4) have the usual RBC count

64)

Which among the following statements are correct and which are wrong ?
1. Plasma constitutes 45% of blood.
2. Albumin is plasma protein involved in osmotic balance.
3. Blood clotting factors are present in blood.
4. Plasma without clotting factors is serum.

5. Minerals are not found in blood.

(1) 1-4 correct, 5 wrong
(2) 1-2 correct, 3, 4, 5 wrong
(3) 2, 3, 4 correct, 1 and 5 wrong
(4) 2 and 4 correct, 1, 3, 5 wrong
65) Assertion :- Heart of fish contains only deoxygenated blood.
Reason :- Oxygenated blood do not return back to the heart in fishes.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of assertion
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false
(4) Both assertion and reason are false

66) The cardiac pacemaker in a patient fails to function normally. The doctors find that an artificial
pace maker is to be grafted in him. It is likely, that it will be grafted, at the site of :-

(1) Sinoatrial node

(2) Atrioventricular node
(3) Atrioventricular bundle
(4) Purkinje fibres

67) SA node is present in :-

(1) Right upper corner of the left atrium

(2) Left upper corner of the right atrium
(3) Right upper corner of the right atrium
(4) Left upper corner of the left atrium

68)

Match the following :-

Column-I Column-II

(A) Pectinate muscles (a) Tricuspid valve

(B) Inter atrial septum (b) Valves

(C) AV-valves (c) Atrium

(D) Dense connective tissue covered by endocardium (d) Fossa ovalis

(1) (A)-(c), (B)-(b), (C)-(a), (D)-(d)
(2) (A)-(c), (B)-(b), (C)-(a), (D)-(d)
(3) (A)-(c), B-(d), (C)-(b), (D)-(a)
(4) (A)-(d), (B)-(c), (C)-(b), (D)-(a)

69) Cardiac out put is defined as :-

(1) The amount of blood pumped by both ventricles per second

(2) The amount of blood pumped by each ventricle per minute
(3) The amount of blood received by heart in one minute
(4) The amount of blood pumped by atria per second

70) The largest and the thickest heart chamber is

(1) Left ventricle
(2) Left atrium
(3) Righ atrium
(4) Right ventricle

71) 'Dup' sound is produced during closure of

(1) Semilunar valves

(2) Bicuspid value
(3) Tricuspid value
(4) both (2) and (3)

72) What is the state of heart in the interval after end of second heart sound and before begining of
first heart sound again ?

(1) Ventricle remain in systole, auricles undergo first diastole and then systole
(2) Ventricles remain in diastole, auricles undergo first diastole and then systole
(3) Ventricles undergo first systole and then diastole, auricles remain in diastole
(4) Ventricles remain in diastole, auricles remain in systole

73) Match the terms given under Column ‘I’ with their functions given under Column ‘II’ and select
the answer from the options given below:

Column-I Column-II

A. Lymphatic System i. Carries oxygenated blood

B. Pulmonary vein ii. Immune Response

To drain back the tissue fluid to the

C. Thrombocytes iii. circulatory system

D. Lymphocytes iv. Coagulation of blood

(1) A-i,B-ii,C-iii,D-iv
(2) A-iii,B-i,C-iv,D-ii
(3) A-iii,B-i,C-ii,D-iv
(4) A-ii,B-i,C-iii,D-iv

74) A portion of cardiovascular system that transport deoxygeneted blood from the heart to lungs
and brings oxygenated blood back to heart is -

(1) Pulmonary circulation

(2) Coronary circulation
(3) Systemic circulation
(4) Single circulation

75) SA node is called pace maker of the heart. Why?

(1) It can change contractile activity generated by AV node
(2) It delays the transmission of impulse between the atria and ventricles.
(3) It gets stimulated when it receives neural signal
(4) It initiates and maintains the rhythmic contractile activity of heart.

76) Which type of white blood cell are concerned with the phagocytic in nature and maximum in
number ?

(1) Monocytes
(2) Eosinophils
(3) Basophils
(4) Neutrophils

77) In a cardiac cycle, time period of atrial diastole is :-

(1) 0.1 sec.

(2) 0.3 sec.
(3) 0.5 sec.
(4) 0.7 sec.

78) When the heart stop beating, it is called :-

(1) Heart attack

(2) Heart failure
(3) Cardiac arrest
(4) CAD

79) Given below are four statements regarding human blood vascular system
(a) There is no role of Calcium ions in blood clotting
(b) Cardiac output is the amount of blood pumped by each ventricle in one second
(c) Arteries are thin walled and have narrow lumen as compared to veins
(d) The stage of cardiac cycle where all the four chambers are in relaxed stage is called joint
Diastole
How many of the above statements are incorrect ?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

80) In human normally the stroke volume per cardiac cycle is :-

(1) 5000 ml
(2) 120 ml
(3) 70 ml
(4) 200 ml
81) Choose the incorrect pair :–

(1) Lubb – closure of AV valves

(2) Dub – opening of semilunar valves
(3) Pulmonary vein – carry oxygenated blood
(4) Cardiac output – amount of blood pumped by each ventricle in one minute

82)

Read the following statement carefully :-

(A) Inter atrial septum is thin and muscular
(B) Inter ventricular septum is made up of thin fibrous tissue
(C) Bicuspid valve is made up of three muscular flaps
(D) The opening of the right and the left ventricle into aorta and the pulmonary artery respectively
are provided with the semilunar valve.
How many statements is/are not correct ?

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

83) How do Thyroxine and Adrenaline affect the working of the heart ?

(1) Reduce both heart rate and cardiac output

(2) Increase both heart rate and cardiac output
(3) Heart rate decrease but cardiac output increases
(4) Heart rate increases without affecting the cardice output

84)

Persons with 'AB' blood group are called as "Universal recipients". This is due to :

(1) Absence of antigens A and B on the surface of RBCs

(2) Absence of antigens A and B in plasma
(3) Presence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B, on RBCs
(4) Absence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B, in plasma

85) In human heart Purkinje fibres present in :-

(1) Throughout the ventricle musculature

(2) Right Atria
(3) Only in Inter Ventricle septum
(4) Both Atria & Ventricle

86) Incomplete double circulation is found in :-

(1) Fishes
(2) Birds
(3) Mammals
(4) Amphibians

87) Which of the following statements are correct?

A. Basophils are most abundant cells of the total WBCs.
B. Basophils secrete histamine, serotonin and heparin.
C. Basophils are involved in inflammatory response.
D. Basophils have kidney shaped nucleus.
E. Basophils are agranulocytes.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) C & E only

(2) B & C only
(3) A & B only
(4) D & E only

88) If we remove all blood cells and clotting factors from blood then it is called :-

(1) Lymph
(2) Plasma
(3) Matrix of blood
(4) Serum

89) (A) The __A__ can generate the maximum number of action potential.
(B) The P-wave represent the electrical excitation of the __B__.
Find 'A' and 'B' in given statement –

A B

(1) SAN Ventricle

(2) AVN Atria

(3) SAN Atria

(4) AVN Ventricle

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

90) Choose the incorrect match –

(1) Neutrophils – 60-65%

(2) Eosinophils – 2-3%
(3) Basophils – 20-25%
(4) Monocytes – 6-8%
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 4 4 1 1 2 2 4 1 4 3 2 1 1 2 2 4 3 4 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 1 4 3 1 3 2 2 3 2 3 3 3 1 1 4 1 1 2 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 1 4 1 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 4 1 4 1 1 4 4 1 2 3 4 3 4 2 3 3 3 3 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 3 3 4 4 3 2 1 1 4 2 1 2 1 4 1 3 2 4 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 2 3 4 2

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 3 1 1 2 3 3 4 3 4 4 3 2 4 3 1 3 2 3 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 1 4 4 4 1 1 2 2 2 4 4 4 3 4 3 1 3 2 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 3 3 4 2 2 2 1 1 3 3 2 4 3 4 1 1 4 3 1
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 4 2 1 3 1 1 3 2 2 1 1 2 2 1 4 4 4 3 3 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 3 2 4 1 4 2 4 3 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

v=

a= = 6t
F = ma = 6 × 6 × t
at t = 4, F = 36 × 4 = 144 newton

2)

Force of gravity acts always vertically downward.

3) Explanation :
Inertia is a fundamental property of matter that describes its tendency to resist changes in
motion. We need to determine the correct definition from the given options.

Concept :
Newton's First Law of Motion (Law of Inertia) states that an object remains in its state of rest
or uniform motion unless acted upon by an external force.

Formula :
There is no specific formula ; inertia is a qualitative concept describing resistance to changes
in motion.

Calculation :
• Inertia resists changes in motion, whether it is at rest or moving with constant velocity.
• The correct definition includes both resisting rest and uniform motion rather than just one.
Thus the correct answer is :
Resistance to change in its state of motion.

4)

5) Concept:

F= , Slope of impulse time graph gives the value of force.

Since (slope) is decreasing force on particle is also decreasing.

6) Acceleration a = = –10 ms–2, u = 60m/s

by s =

⇒ ⇒ t = 12 sec.

7) v = u + at ⇒ 1000 = 0 + a × 10
a = 100 m/s2

8)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

9)

10)

11)

We know that F = dp/dt

Here change in momentum is zero so dp = 0 and implies momentum will be same so force –0
Hence, the correct answer is option (3)

12)

To have a velocity along y-axis,

 its x-component must be zero.

t = 10 sec

13) (area of F-t graph is zero)

14)

Explain question : Find initial acceleration of block.

Concept: This question is based on Newton's second law

Solution:

F = 30 N
∴ 1.5 × a =30

a= = 20 m/s2
Final answer: (1)

15) Solution:
Asking About:
Find the maximum acceleration (a) of the stone without breaking the cord.

Concept:

A. Newton's Second Law: F = ma

B. Tension Limit: The maximum tension the cord can withstand is three times the weight of the
stone i.e., Tmax = 3mg.

Formula:
Tmax = m(g + a)

Calculation / Explanation:
3mg = m(g + a)
3g = g + a
a = 2a

Final Answer: 2g
Correct option is (2).

16) Explain:
Find the average force required to stop a hammer with momentum = 25 N-s in 0.05 s.
Concept:
Based on Newton's Second Law, force is the rate of change of momentum:
Formula Used:

where:
 • Δp = 25 N-s (change in momentum)
• Δt = 0.05 s (time taken)
Calculation:

Final Answer: Option (2) 500 N

17)

Concept:
Impulse-Momentum Theorem: The area under the force-time graph gives the impulse, which
equals the change in linear momentum.
Formula:

Δp= Impulse = = Area under the force-time graph

Calculation / Explanation:

A. From 0 to 2 s : Force =+2 N → Area =2 × 2 = + 4Ns

B. From 2 to 4 s : Force =–1 N → Area = 2 × (–1) = –2N s
C. From 4 to 6 s : Force = +1 N → Area =2 × 1 = +2Ns
D. Total Impulse =+4 – 2 + 2 = +4Ns

18) Explain: A disc is kept floating in the air by firing bullets vertically at it. Find the speed
with which the bullets are fired, given the mass of the disc, the mass and rate of firing of the
bullets, and the fact that the bullets rebound with the same speed.

Concept: For the disc to float, the upward force exerted by the rebounding bullets must
balance the weigh of the disc.

Formula: Force = Rate of change of momentum =

Momentum P = mv

Calculation: The change in momentum of each bullet during collision is :

= (–mv) – (mv) = –2mv (downwards)
The magnitude of the change in momentum = |–2mv| = 2mv.
The force exerted by each bullet on the disc is the rate of change of momentum of the bullet
during the collision.
In one second, n = 10 bullets are fired.
The total change in momentum of the bullets per second = Total per second = n × | –2mv|
= 2mnv
For the disc to float, this upward force must balance the weight of the disc: Upward force =
Weight of the disc
2mnv = Mg

v= =
Ans. (3)
Difficulty level : tough

19) Explanation :
We have to find impulse in given force time graph.

Concept :
Impulse and average force.

Formula :
J = FΔt

Mathematical calculation :
J = FΔt

J = [40000 × 4 × 10–6] × ∴ F Δt is area under the curve.

I = 0.08 Ns

Correct answer with option (4) : 0.08 Ns

Estimated time : 1-2 minute

Level : Easy

20)

F=

21) Question Explanation: To tell characteristics of the third law of motion.

Solution: According to the third law of motion every action has a reaction equal in magnitude
and opposite in direction acting on two different bodies.
Concept: Newton's third law

22)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

23)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer
24) Explain: Choose the correct free body diagram (FBD) showing all external force acting on
the rod of mass m.
Concept: FBD (Free body diagram)
Formula: Weight W = mg
Calculation:
Weight (mg): Acts vertically downwards from the center of mass.
Normal reaction from the ground (N): Acts vertically upwards perpendicular to the
ground.
Tension (T): Acts along the string, which is connected from the top of the rod to the wall.
Correct FBD

Ans. (3)
Difficulty level: Easy

25)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

26)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

27)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

28) Question:
A mass M is suspended by a rope from a rigid support at A as shown in the figure. Another
rope is tied at the end B and it is pulled horizontally with a force F. If the rope AB makes an
angle θ with the vertical, then the tension in the string AB is:

Solution:
1. Asking About:
Tension in string AB.

2. Concept:
Resolve forces horizontally and vertically. Use equilibrium (net force = 0).

3. Formula:
Horizontally: T sin θ = F
4. Calculation / Explanation:

From equilibrium in horizontal direction: T sin θ = F Thus,

5. Final Answer:

Option (2)

29) Concept:
If Block is in equilibrium net force is equal to zero.
Formula:
Fnet = 0 at equilibrium
Calculation
Draw FBD
Step-1

Step-2
By vector Law two forces are ⊥r

Then their resultant =

So, = 10 N

Step-3
By option ans. is (3).
& T2sin30° = T1sin60°
So, T2 > T1

30) (1) Asking About

 The question asks for the tension T2 in the system of blocks in equilibrium, as shown in the
diagram.
The answer is to be expressed in kg-wt.
(2) Concept
1. Relation between kg-wt and force (N):

A. 1kg - wt = 9.8N
B. To convert force from Newtons (N) to kg-wt:

2. Tension in a string:
The tension in a string supports the weight of all blocks below it.

A. Weight of a block:

W = mg
(3) Formula
1. Tension in the string at a point:

where W3 and W2 are the weights of the 3 kg and 2 kg blocks, respectively.

2. Conversion to kg-wt:

(4) Solution / Explanation

Step 1: Calculate the weights of the blocks

A. Block with mass 2 kg:

A. Block with mass 3 kg:

Step 2: Calculate T2 in Newtons

The tension T2 supports the weight of the 2 kg and 3 kg blocks:

Step 3: Convert T2 to kg-wt

(5) Final Answer

The tension T2 in the system is 5 kg-wt.

31)

Fnet = f – f = 0
So, Tension remains same at all points of the rope and equal to F.

32)

When the block is displaced to the right, the spring on the left is strectched. Restoring force f1
= k1 x is to the left. At the same time, the spring on the right is compressed. The restoring
force, f2 = k2 x is again to the left. Total force = f1 + f2 = (k1 + k2)x.

∴ Acceleration,
 33)

Reading of spring balance = 2 × (Tension in string)

In (A) : Reading =

In (B) : Reading =

34)

Since spring are massless, their reading will be same.

35) a = = 5 m/s2
T – 3.5g = 3.5 × 5
T = 52.5 N

36) Force on the pulley by the clamp

37)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

38) For 6 kg ⇒ T = 6g

For 4 kg T = T1 + 4g
⇒ T1 = 2g
= 19.6 N
39) Explain: A force F is applied to block A. A find the contact force between blocks A and B,
and between block B and C. The surface is frictionless.
Concept: Since the surface is frictionless, all block will move together with the same
acceleration.
Formula: Net force on the system: Fnet = (mA + mB + mC)a
Force on a single block F = ma
Calculation : Acceleration of the system = F = Ma
F = (7m)a

a=
Contact force between A and B (FAB) : Consider blocks B and C as a combined system. The
force focusing this combined system to accelerate is the contact force from a on B (FAB).

FAB = (mB + mC)a = (2m + 4m) =

Contact force between B and C (FBC) : Consider block C alone. The force causing block C to
accelerate is the contact force B on C (FBC).

FBC = mCa = (4m) =

Ans. (2)
Difficulty Level: Moderate

40) If applied force on the block is zero, then frictional force will be zero.

41)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

42) t1 = ; t2 =
t2 = 2t1 ⇒ t2 = 4t12
2

⇒ 4sinθ – 4µcosθ = sinθ

µ=

43)
(F1)ℓ = 0.5 (8 + 2)g = 50 N
as F < (F1)ℓ thus
 F2 = 0

44)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

45)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

CHEMISTRY

46) has total of 15 electrons, electron is removed from anti-bonding molecular orbital,
hence bond order is increased and magnetic moment changes from paramagnetic to
diamagnetic moment.

47) Hybridisation of is sp3d2 in which the d orbital involved in ,

48)

XeF2, IF2– 2σ + 3ℓp linear

⇒ 5 sp3d

49)
In CO; (C) have still 6 e– in valence shell after bond formation.

50) Due to intermolecular H-bonding in o-nitrophenol, it exists as a monomer while due to

intermolecular H-bonding in p-nitrophenol, it exists as an associated molecule.

51)

52)
 SF4 CF4 XeF4
l.p.=1 l.p.=0 l.p.=2

53) As EN of central atom increases Bond angle increases.

54)

A. Question Explanation:
The question asks us to determine which of the given hydrocarbons (C2H2, C2H4, C2H6) has the
shortest carbon-carbon (C-C) bond length.

B. Given Data:
The compounds given are:

A. C2H2 (Acetylene)
B. C2H4 (Ethylene)
C. C2H6 (Ethane)

C. Concept:

A. Bond Length and Bond Order

D. Solution:

A. Bond Order:

A. Single bond (C-C): Bond order = 1

B. Double bond (C=C): Bond order = 2

C. Triple bond (C≡C): Bond order = 3

D. Mathematical Calculation/Explanation of Bonding:

A. C2H2 (Acetylene): Contains a triple bond (C≡C) between the two carbon atoms. This is the
highest bond order (3) among the given molecules.
B. C2H4 (Ethylene): Contains a double bond (C=C) between the two carbon atoms. The bond
order is 2.
C. C2H6 (Ethane): Contains a single bond (C-C) between the two carbon atoms. The bond order
is 1.

E. Final Answer:
​Since C2H2 has the highest bond order (3), it will have the shortest C-C bond length. Therefore,
option 1 is the correct answer.
55)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

56)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

57)

IF5 = sp3d with one lone pair of electron.

square pyramidal
No bond angle is 90°.

58)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

59)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

60)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

61) NCERT, Class 11th, Part-I, Article no. 4.6

Page no. 114, Edition - 2023-24

62)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

63)
64)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

65)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

66) CH3 COOH

67)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

68)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

69)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

70)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

71)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

72)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

73)
Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

74)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

75)

76)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

77) F–F, small size more repulsion b/w electron pair, less bond energy.

78) SO3–2 ⇒
In 2nd period elements d-orbitals are not present.

79) NO3–, CO3–2 Number of electron = 32

sp2 sp2 Trigonal planner

80) CO CO2 CO32–

B.O. = 3 2 4/3

Bond length ∝

81)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

82)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

83)

Owing to the lone pairs & H present on OH & SH in c & d

 84)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

85)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

86)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

87)

88)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

89)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

90)

BIOLOGY
91)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

92)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

93) NCERT Page # 23.

94)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

95)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

96)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

97) NCERT XI Pg. # 22,23, 24 etc.

98)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

99)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

100)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

101)
Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

102)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

103)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

104)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

105)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

106)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

107)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

108) More elaborate with a well-developed foot, seta and capsule

109)

NCERT-XI, Page # 29
Bryophytes lack xylem

110)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer
 111)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

112)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

113) NCERT - Pg. # 24

114) NEW NCERT-XI, Pg. # 12 & 13

115)

The correct answer is: 4. Both (A) & (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Explanation:

A. Assertion (A): Cyanobacteria, often called "blue-green algae," are not classified as algae
anymore. This is true because, although they were once thought to be algae, they are now
understood to be bacteria (specifically, prokaryotes) and are classified under Kingdom
Monera.
B. Reason (R): All unicellular prokaryotes, including cyanobacteria, are placed in Kingdom
Monera, while algae (which are eukaryotic organisms) are now classified under Kingdom
Plantae or Kingdom Protista, depending on the classification system. This is also correct.

Thus, both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) correctly explains (A).

116)

NCERT Pg. # 24

117) NCERT Pg : 35

118) NCERT

119)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

120)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer
121) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 15 & 16

122)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

123)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

124) Bryophytes consist of thalloid body, attached to the substratum by hair-like structures
called rhizoids (true roots are absent), these lack vascular tissue (xylem and phloem) and
require water at the time of fertilisation. Bryophytes exhibit alternation of generation. The
haploid gametophyte (producing gametes for sexual reproduction) alternates with diploid
sporophyte (producing spores for asexual reproduction). Production of large number of spores
is for increasing the chances of survival and is an adaptation to land conditions

126) NCERT Page no. 29

127)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

128) SOLUTION-
The correct answer is Funaria.
Explanation:
• Funaria is a moss, not a liverwort. Mosses belong to the class Bryopsida, while liverworts
belong to the class Hepaticopsida.
• Riccia, Marchantia, and Porella are all liverworts.
So, Funaria is the one that does not belong to liverworts.

129)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

130)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

131) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 19, 20

 132) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 20-23, 27

133) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 18, 21, 24

134)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

135)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

136)

The correct answer is Option 2: Left atrium and Left ventricle.

Explanation:

A. The mitral valve, also known as the bicuspid valve, is located between the left atrium and left
ventricle of the heart.
B. It prevents the backflow of blood from the left ventricle into the left atrium during ventricular
contraction.

137)

The pacemaker of the heart is the structure that initiates the electrical impulses that control
the heartbeat. This specialized tissue has the property of autorhythmicity, meaning it can
spontaneously depolarize and generate action potentials at a regular rate.

SA node (Sinoatrial node): This is a cluster of specialized cardiac cells located in the wall of the
right atrium. It has the highest rate of spontaneous depolarization and initiates the heartbeat.
Therefore, the SA node is known as the pacemaker of the heart.

Therefore, the pacemaker of the heart is the SA node.

Final Answer : (2). SA node

138)

NCERT-XI, Pg.# 199

139)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 286

140)
Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

141) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 278, para-3

142) Pg. No. 279_XI NCERT

143)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

144)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

145)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

146)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

147) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 282

148)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 181

149) NCERT Pg. # 283

150)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

151)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer
152) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 285

153)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

154) Question Explanation: identify correct & incorrect statements.

Concept : Blood Plasma
Solution :
(1) incorrect, Plasma constitutes 55%
(2) Correct, Albumin is osmotic balance.
(3) Correct, Clotting factors are present in blood plasma.
(4) Correct, (Plasma – clotting factors = serum) (5) incorrect, Minerals are present in blood.
Final Answer : option (3). 2, 3, 4 correct, 1 and 5 wrong

155)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

156)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

157) NCERT Pg.# 284

158)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

159)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

160)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

161)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

162)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

163)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

164) NCERT-(XIth) Pg. # 286

165)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

166) NCERT Pg. # 279

167)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

168)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

169) NCERT-XI , Pg# 279 to 287

170) NCERT-XI , Pg# 285

171) NCERT Pg # 284, 285

172)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

173)
 Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

174)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

175)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 199

176)

A. Incomplete double circulation occurs when there is some mixing of oxygenated and
deoxygenated blood within the heart.

A. Amphibians: Typically have a three-chambered heart (two atria and one ventricle). While they
have double circulation (pulmonary and systemic), the single ventricle allows for the mixing of
oxygenated blood returning from the lungs and deoxygenated blood returning from the body.
This results in incomplete double circulation.

Therefore, incomplete double circulation is found in amphibians.

Final Answer : (4) Amphibians

177) Question Explain : Correct statements about basophils

Concept : This Question is based on Introduction, Blood, Plasma
Explanation :

(B) Correct: Basophils secrete histamine, serotonin, and heparin.

(C) Correct: Basophils play a role in inflammatory response.
(A) Incorrect: Basophils are the least abundant WBCs.
(D) Incorrect: Basophils have a lobed nucleus, not kidney-shaped.
(E) Incorrect: Basophils are granulocytes, not agranulocytes.

Final answer - 2. B & C only

178) NCERT, Pg. # 279

179) NCERT Pg. # 286, 284

180) NCERT Pg. 280