24-08-2025

5301CMD303051250003 MD

PHYSICS

1) For a body, angular velocity and its radius vector is , then its velocity
is :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

2) Keeping the angle of banking same, if the radius of curvature is made four times, the percentage
increase in the maximum speed with which a vehicle can travel on a circular road is :-

(1) 25%
(2) 50%
(3) 75%
(4) 100%

3) A cube of mass M starts at rest from point 1 at a height 4R, where R is the radius of the circular
track. The cube slides down the frictionless track and around the loop. The force which the track

exerts on the cube at point 2 is :

(1) 3 mg
(2) mg
(3) 2 mg
(4) cube will not reach the point 2.

4) Three identical particles are joined together by a thread as shown in figure. All the three particles
are moving in a horizontal plane. If the velocity of the outermost particle is υ0, then the ratio of

tensions in the three sections of the string is (TBC : TAB : TOA)

(1) 3 : 5 : 7
(2) 3 : 4 : 5
(3) 7 : 11 : 6
(4) 3 : 5 : 6

5) A stone is tied to a string of length ‘ℓ’ and is whirled in a vertical circle with the other end of the
string at the centre. At a certain instant of time, the stone is at its lowest position and has a speed
‘u’. The magnitude of the change in velocity as it reaches a position where the string is horizontal (g
being acceleration due to gravity) is :–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) A frictionless track ABCDE ends in a circular loop of radius R. A body slides down the track from
point A which is at a height h = 5 cm. Maximum value of R for the body to successfully complete the

loop is :-

(1) 5 cm

(2)

(3)

(4) 2 cm

7) A gramophone record is revolving with an angular velocity ω. A coin is placed at a distance R

from the centre of the record. The static coefficient of friction is μ. The coin will revolve with the
record if :-

(1)

(2)
only

(3)
only

(4)

8) A car is negotiating a curved road of radius R. The road is banked at an angle θ. The coefficient of
friction between the tyres of the car and the road is µs. The maximum safe velocity on this road is:-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

9)

If angular velocity of particle depends on the angle rotated θ as ω = θ2 + 2θ, then its angular
acceleration α at θ = 1 rad is:

(1) 8 rad/s2
(2) 10 rad/s2
(3) 12 rad/s2
(4) None of these

10) A particle of mass m is held at rest on the surface of a hemispherical bowl with respect to the
bowl which is rotating with angular velocity ω. Radius of bowl is 0.5 m. According to the figure
radius of the circle of the particle is 0.4 m. Find angular speed of the bowl so that particle remains

at rest relative to bowl in given condition all surfaces are smooth –

(1) 5.7 rad/s

(2) 1.2 rad/s
(3) 7.6 rad/s
(4) 12.3 rad/s

11) A pendulum bob has a speed of 3ms–1 at its lowest position. The pendulum is 0.5 m long. The
speed of the bob when the length makes an angle of 60° to the vertical.

(1) 3ms–1

(2)

(3)

(4) 2ms–1

12) A wheel is subjected to uniform angular acceleration about its axis. Initially its angular velocity
is zero. In the first 2 sec, it rotates through an angle θ1 ; in the next 2 sec, it rotates through an
additional angle θ2. The ratio of θ2 / θ1 is-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 5

13) A particle is moving along a circular path of radius 6 m with uniform speed of 8 ms–1. The
average acceleration when the particle completes one half of the revolution is -

(1)
m/s2

(2)
m/s2

(3)
m/s2
(4) None of these

14) A stone is rotated in a vertical circle, speed at bottom most point is , where R is the radius
of circle. The ratio of tension at the top and the bottom is :-

(1) 1 : 2
(2) 1 : 3
(3) 2 : 3
(4) 1 : 4

15) A particle moves in a circular path of radius R with an angular velocity ω = a – bt where a and b

are positive constants and t is time. The magnitude of the acceleration of the particle after time is
:-

(1) Rb
(2) a2R
(3) R(a2 + b)
(4)

16) A coin is placed on the horizontal surface of a rotating disc. The distance of the coin from the
axis is 1 m and coefficient of friction is 0.5. If the disc starts from rest and is given an angular
acceleration 1 rad/s2, the number of revolutions through which the disc turns before the coin slips is

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

17) A car is revolving at a speed of 72 km/hr. The radius of its wheels is 0.25 m. If the wheels are
stopped in 20 rotations by applying brakes, then angular retardation produced by the brakes is :-

(1) –25.5 rad/s2

(2) –29.5 rad/s2
(3) –33.5 rad/s2
(4) –45.5 rad/s2

18) A car is moving with speed 20 m/s on a circular path of radius 100 m. Its speed is increasing at
the rate of 3 m/s2. The magnitude of acceleration of the car at that moment is

(1) 1 m/s2
(2) 3 m/s2
(3) 4 m/s2
(4) 5 m/s2

19) The kinetic energy K of a particle moving along a circle of radius R depends on the distance
covered s as K = as2. The centripetal force acting on the particle is

(1) 2asR
(2) 2as2
(3) 2as

(4)

20) A body tied to a string of length L is revolved in a vertical circle with minimum velocity, when
the body reaches the upper most point the string breaks and the body moves under the influence of
the gravitational field of earth along a parabolic path. The horizontal range AC of the body will be :–

(1) x = L
(2) x = 2L
(3) x =
x=
(4)

21) Two moving particles 'P' and 'Q' are 10 m apart at an certain instant. The velocity of P is 8 m/s
making an angle 30° with line joining P and Q and velocity of Q is 6 m/s making an angle 30° with
PQ as shown in figure. Then the angular speed of P with respect to Q is -
(1) 0 rad/s
(2) 0.1 rad/s
(3) 0.4 rad/s
(4) 0.7 rad/s

22) If ar and at represents radial and tangential acceleration, the motion of a particle will be
circular if :-
(a) ar = 0 and at = 0 (b) ar = 0 but at ≠ 0
(c) ar ≠ 0 but at = 0 (d) ar ≠ 0 and at ≠ 0

(1) c
(2) d
(3) a, b
(4) c, d

23) A car moves with a constant speed on a road as shown in figure. If NA and NB are normal

reactions at A and B, then :-

(1) NA=NB
(2) NA>NB
(3) NA<NB
(4) Data insufficient

24) For a particle in uniform circular motion (in anticlockwise), the acceleration at a point P(R,θ)
on the circle of radius R is (Here θ is measured from the x-axis):-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
25) Two spring of spring constant k and 3k are stretched separately by same force. The ratio of
potential energy stored in them respectively will be

(1) 3:1
(2) 9:1
(3) 1:3
(4) 1:9

26) A body of mass 0.5 kg thrown vertically upward with 20 m/s reaches a maximum height of 16 m.
The amount of energy dissipated by the air drag acting on the ball during the ascent is

(1) 20 J
(2) 10 J
(3) 4 J
(4) 8 J

27) Force (F) acting on a particle kept at origin varies with position(x) as F = kx, where k is positive
constant. If potential energy at origin U(0) is zero, then graph between potential energy U(x) versus
x is

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

28)

A particle is thrown at an acute angle with the horizontal. Select the incorrect statement.

(1) Power delivered by gravity is zero at all the point on the trajectory
(2) Power delivered by gravity is zero only at one point.
(3) Average power of gravity is zero
(4) During one half journey, the power is negative and during the other half the power is positive

29) What is the work done by gravity on block A in 2 seconds after the blocks are released? (Pulley is

light)

(1) 240 J
(2) 200 J
(3) 120 J
(4) 24 J

30) A body of 10 kg is subjected to a force as shown in the figure. The block moves along a straight
line under the influence of this force. The change in kinetic energy when body moves from x = 0 to x
= 4 m will be

(1) 15 J
(2) 12.5 J
(3) 17.5 J
(4) 19.2 J

31) The potential energy of a particle of mass 0.5 kg moving along x axis is given by U = 2x (х -
3). The speed of the particle is maximum at

(1) x = 1 m
(2) x = 1.5 m
(3) x = 2 m
(4) x = 3 m

32) A weight mg is suspended from a spring. If the energy stored in the spring is U. The elongation
in the spring is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) Work done in time t on a body of mass m, when it is accelerated from rest with constant
acceleration to a speed v in time t1, as a function of time t is given by

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

34) If a body starts its motion along the smooth track from P as shown in figure, then its velocity at

the instant of leaving R is

(1) 5 m/s
(2) 15 m/s
(3) 10 m/s
(4) 20 m/s

35) A block having mass m is hanging by a string of length ( ). A variable horizontal force is applied
on the block, which displaces the block slowly till the string makes an angle with the vertical. Find

the work done by the force

(1) mgl
(2) mgl (1 – cos )
(3) mgl cos
(4) mgl (1 + cos )

36) If U is the potential energy of a particle and x is its displacement, then in the position of stable
equilibrium
(1)
and

(2)
and

(3)
and
(4) All of these

37) A stone of mass m is thrown from earth's surface at an angle to the horizontal with an initial
velocity v0. Ignoring the air drag, the power developed by gravitational force t second after the
beginning of motion is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) Zero

38) An object of mass m = 1.5 kg is acted by the force as shown in figure that varies with the
position of the object as shown. If the object starts from rest at a point x = 0. What is its speed at x =

50 m?

(1) 20 m/s
(2) 25 m/s
(3) 15 m/s
(4) 17 m/s

39) A chain of mass m and length / is kept on smooth horizontal table with one forth of the chain is
overhanging from the table edge. Minimum work done in bringing the hanging part on to the table is

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

40) A particle is moving along x-axis under conservative force and its potential energy U varies with

x co-ordinate as shown in figure. Then force is positive at

(1) A
(2) C, D
(3) B
(4) D, E

41) 20 J of work is done to increase the length of a light spring by 1 cm from its natural length. Work
done in increasing its length further by 1 cm is

(1) 20 J
(2) 40 J
(3) 30 J
(4) 60 J

42) Work done by an agent applying a force on a particle in taking it from A(2, 3, 4)
to B(3, 7, 2) is

(1) 3 unit
(2) 15 unit
(3) 20 unit
(4) 23 unit

43) An automobile of mass m accelerates from rest, while the engine supplies constant power P. The
speed of the automobile as a function of time is given by

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

44) If momentum of a body increases by 20%, its kinetic energy will increase by

(1) 40%
(2) 20%
(3) 44%
(4) 10%

45) A bob of a simple pendulum is released from position A. Velocity of the bob when it is at lowest

position A' is

(1)
(2) 10 m/s
(3) 5 m/s
(4)

CHEMISTRY

1) Select the correct expression regarding the relation between KP and KC for the reaction : aX(g) +
bY(g) ⇌ bZ(g) + aW(g)

a+b
(1) KP = KC(RT)

(2)
KP =
(3) KP = KC RT
(4) KP = KC

2) For the reaction : N2O3(g) ⇌ NO(g) + NO2(g) total pressure = P, degree of dissociation = 50%.
Then Kp would be –

(1) 3 P
(2) 2 P

(3)

(4)

3) Dissociation of phosphorus pentachloride is favoured by –

(1) High temperature and high pressure

(2) High temperature and low pressure
(3) Low temperature and low pressure
(4) Low temperature and high pressure

4) Adding inert gas to system N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g) at equilibrium at constant volume will be –

(1) N2 and H2 are formed in abundance

(2) N2, H2 and NH3 will have the same molar concentration
(3) The production of ammonia increases
(4) No change in the equilibrium

5) In a 10 litre box 2.5 mole hydroiodic acid is taken. After equilibrium 2HI ⇌ H2 + I2,the
concentration of HI is found to be 0.1 mol ℓ-1. The concentration of [H2] at equilibrium in mol ℓ-1, is –

(1) 2.4
(2) 0.15
(3) 1.5
(4) 7.5 × 10-2

6) At 1 atm and 300 K 1 mole of N2O4(g) is kept in a closed container upto equilibrium 20% of
N2O4(g) is converted to NO2(g)
N2O4(g) ⇌ 2NO2(g) according to reaction
Hence, total pressure at equilibrium is :-

(1) 1.2 atm

(2) 2.4 atm
(3) 2.0 atm
(4) 1.0 atm

7) In the dissociation of N2O4 into NO2. x varies with according to ( where x is degree of
dissociation)–
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) For the following reactions, the value of KC is given:-

A B, [KC = 3], B C, [KC = 5] and
C D [KC = 7]
KC for the reaction
A D will be

(1) 15
(2) 35
(3) 21
(4) 105

9) The equilibrium constant for the reaction N2(g) + O2(g) 2NO(g) at temperature (T) is 4 × 10–4.

The value of equilibrium constant for the reaction NO(g) ⇌ at the same
temperature is :

(1) 4 × 10–4
(2) 50
(3) 2.5 × 102
(4) 0.02

10) aA ⇌ bB + cC, ΔH = –x kcal.

If high pressure and low temperature are the favourable condition for the formation of the product
in above reaction, hence : –

(1) a > b + c
(2) a < b + c
(3) a = b + c
(4) None of them

11) Which reaction is not affected by change in pressure ?

(1) H2(g) + I2(g) 2HI(g)

(2) 2C(s) + O2(g) 2CO(g)
(3) N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)
(4) PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)

12) In the melting of ice, which one of the conditions will be more favourable –

(1) High temperature and high pressure

(2) Low temperature and low pressure
(3) Low temperature and high pressure
(4) High temperature and Low pressure

13) If in the reaction N2O4(g) 2NO2(g), α is the part of N2O4 which dissociates from 1 mole then
the number of moles at equilibrium will be -

(1) 3
(2) 1
(3) (1– α)2
(4) (1 + α)

14) Assertion : For the reaction N2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2NO(g); if volume of system is changed at
equilibrium the reaction is neither shifted to forward nor backward and reaction remains in
equilibrium.
Reason : For the reaction having Δng = 0, change in volume of system at equilibrium does not alter
concentrations of reactants and products.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

15) Statement-I : For the physical equilibrium H2O(s) ⇌ H2O(ℓ) on increasing temperature and
increasing pressure more water will form.
Statement-II : Since forward reaction is endothermic in nature and volume of water is greater than
that of volume of ice.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

16) The ionisation constant of acetic acid is 10–5 and that of formic acid is 10–4. The difference of pKa
value i.e. [(pKa)acetic acid – (pKa)formic acid] is equal to :-

(1) 10
(2) 10–1
(3) –1
(4) +1

17) The dissociation constant of monobasic acids A, B, C and D are 6 × 10–4, 5 × 10–5, 3.6 × 10–6 and
7 × 10–10, respectively. The pH values of their 0.1M aqueous solution are in the order :-

(1) D > C > B > A

(2) A > B > C > D
(3) A = B = C = D
(4) None

18) At 80°C (H3O+) of distilled water is 10–6 mol/L. At the same temperature the value of Kw is:

(1) 1 × 10–3
(2) 1 × 10–6
(3) 1 × 10–9
(4) 1 × 10–12

19) At infinite dilution a weak electrolyte contains:

(1) Unionised molecules

(2) Only ions
(3) Ions and unionised molecules
(4) Not definite

20) Assertion :- Aqueous solution of FeSO4 and AlCl3 show pH < 7.

Reason :- Phenomenon is attributed to cationic hydrolysis.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are correct and Reason is correct explanation for Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are correct but Reason is not correct explanation for Assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is not correct.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are incorrect.

21) Given below are two statements :

Statement-I : Aqueous solution of sodium acetate is alkaline in nature.
Statement-II : Both acetate and sodium ion undergoes hydrolysis in water.
On the basis of above statements, select the correct option :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(4) Statement I is false and Statement II is true

22) A white salt is readily soluble in water and gives a colourless solution with a pH of about 9. The
salt would be :-

(1) NH4NO3
(2) CH3COONa
(3) CH3COONH4
(4) CaCO3

23) Which of the following salts when dissolved in water will hydrolyse ?

(1) NaCl
(2) KCl
(3) NH4Cl
(4) Na2SO4

24) Which of the following is an example of acidic salt?

(1) HCOONa
(2) Na2HPO3
(3) NaKSO4
(4) Na2HPO4

25) What is the pH of an aqueous solution of ammonium acetate (Ka = Kb = 1.8 × 10–5) ?

(1) > 7
(2) 7.0
(3) < 7.0
(4) Zero

26) Which is the metamer of the compound P ?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

27)

Which alkene does show geometrical isomerism ?

(1) 2-methylpropene
(2) 2-methylbut-2-ene
(3) 2-ethylbut-1-ene
(4) 1-phenylpropene

28)

How many structural isomers are possible for C3H6Cl2 ?

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

29) The total number of acyclic structural isomers possible for compound with molecular
formula C4H10O is

(1) 9
(2) 7
(3) 5
(4) 6

30) Which of the following represent positional isomer among the following?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

31) Which of the following will not show geometrical isomerism ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) Select correct pair

(1)
H3C–CH2–CH2–NH–CH3 and are chain isomers

(2)
are chain isomers

(3)
& are metamers
(4) Anti form is the most stable form of ethane–1, 2–diol (ethylene glycol)
33)
Exhibits :-

(1) Tautomerism
(2) Optical isomerism
(3) Geometrical isomerism
(4) Geometrical and optical isomerism

34) The priority of groups OH, COOH, CHO, OCH3 attached to chiral carbon is in order -

(1) OH > COOH > CHO > OCH3

(2) OCH3 > OH > CHO > COOH
(3) OCH3 > OH > COOH > CHO
(4) OCH3 > COOH > CHO > OH

35) The number of cis-trans isomer possible for the following compound :-

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 8

36) Which of the following is meso compound :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
37) Total number of stereo isomers possible of the given structure:

(1) 8
(2) 2
(3) 4
(4) 3

38) Which of the following has 'S' configuration :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

39) Which of the following biphenyls is optically active?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

40) Total number of optically active compounds from the following is :-

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 6

41) Which of the following structure has D-configuration ?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

42) Which have Z-configuration :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) The compound has :

(1) Plane of symmetry

(2) Center of symmetry
(3) Both (1) and (3)
(4) No symmetry

44) The correct statement (s) concerning the structures E, F and G is (are)

(1) E,F and G are homologous

(2) E and G are functional isomer
(3) F and G are diastereomers
(4) Both (2) and (3)

45) Correct match is

Column-I Column-II

(P) (a) Meso compound

(Q) (b) Optically active

(R) (c) Optically inactive

(1) P → a ; Q → b ; R → c
(2) P → a ; Q → c ; R → b
(3) P → c ; Q → b ; R → a
(4) P → c ; Q → a ; R → b

BIOLOGY

1) Assertion A: Pedigree analysis can reveal whether a Mendelian disorder is dominant or recessive.
Reason R: Haemophilia, an X-linked recessive disorder, demonstrates transmission from a carrier
female to her male progeny.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

2) Which of the following could explain the inheritance pattern shown in the pedigree ?
A. Autosomal dominant trait
B. Autosomal recessive trait
C. Sex Linked Recessive
D. Sex Linked Dominant
(1) A and B
(2) A only
(3) A, B and D
(4) A, C and D

3) Given pedigree show inheritance of autosomal dominant disorder (Myotonic dystrophy) then.

What will be genotype of shaded symbol :

(1) AA
(2) Aa
(3) AA or Aa
(4) aa

4)

The figure given below represents experimental technique used by G.J. mendel. Select the option
giving correct identification of A, B & C :-

(1) A–Artificial cross pollination, B–Emasculation, C– Hybrid offsprings

(2) A–Emasculation, B–Bagging, C–Hybrid offsprings
(3) A–Bagging, B–Emasculation, C–Hybrid offsprings
(4) A–Emasculation, B–Artifical cross pollination, C–Hybrid offsprings

5) A colour blind man has a colour blind sister, but a normal brother, then his mother would be :-
(1) Colour blind
(2) Completely normal
(3) Normal but carrier
(4) None of these

6) Consanguineous marriage shown by which of the given symbol.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) In ZZ - ZW types of chromosome, 'W' chromosome determines

(1) Maleness in birds

(2) Femaleness in birds
(3) Maleness in grasshopper
(4) Femaleness in grasshopper

8)
Study the following figure given above identify A :-

(1) Phenylketonuria
(2) Down’s syndrome
(3) Turner’s syndrome
(4) Hemophilia

9) In Morgan's experiment with Drosophila for eye colour and wing size the percentage of parental
type in F2-generation was :-

(1) 62.8 %
(2) 37.2 %
(3) 98.7 %
(4) 1.3 %
10) Choose the incorrect statement from the following

(1) Haemophilia shows its transmission from unaffected carrier female to some of the male progeny
A daughter will not normally be colour blind, unless her mother is colour blind and her father is
(2)
also colour blind.
Colour blind individuals fail to discriminate between red
(3)
and green colour.
(4) Colour blindness and Haemophilia are Mendelian disorders

11) The map distance between genes A and B is 3 units, between B and C 10 units and between C
and A 7 units. The order of the genes in a linkage map constructed on the above data would perhaps
be :-

(1) A, B, C
(2) A, C, B
(3) B, C, A
(4) B, A, C

12)

In an experiment, individual homozygous for 'ab' gene, were crossed with wild type. The F1 hybrid
was test crossed and progenies produced in following ratio :-
++ / ab → 896
ab / ab → 880
+ a / ab → 108
+ b/ab → 116

Calculate the distance between a and b gene

(1) 22.4 cM
(2) 44 cM
(3) 11.2 cM
(4) 45 cM

13) Drosophila melanogaster were found very suitable for genetic studies because :

(1) Complete their life cycle in about two day

(2) Single mating produce small number of progeny
(3) Male and female flies are easily distinguishable
(4) Heridity variation can't be seen with low power microscope

14) Two genes R and Y are located very close on the chromosomal linkage map of maize plant. When
RRYY and rryy genotypes are hybridized, the F2 segregation will show

(1) Higher number of the parental types

(2) Higher number of the recombinant types
(3) Segregation in the expected 9: 3: 3: 1 ratio
(4) Segregation in 3:1 ratio
15) Assertion A : Genes that are located far apart on the same chromosome can exhibit different
levels of recombination.
Reason R : The frequency of recombination between gene pairs is used to map their position on the
chromosome.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

16) Two genes a and b are linked and show 30% recombination. If ++ / ++ individual married with
ab / ab then the types and proportion of gametes produced by F1 will be -

(1) ++ 35% : ab : 35% : + a 15% : +b 15%

(2) ++ 15% : ab : 15% : + a 35% : +b 35%
(3) ++ 35% : ab : 15% : + a 35% : +b 15%
(4) ++ 15% : ab : 35% : + a 15% : +b 35%

17) Morgan observed that two genes did not segregate independently in dihybrid cross, because :-

(1) These two genes are present on different chromosomes.

(2) These two genes are present on same chromosome.
(3) These two genes are blended together
(4) One gene is suppressing the effect of another gene.

18) Match the terms in Column-I with their description in Column-II and choose the correct option :

Column-i Column-ii

Many genes govern a single

(a) Dominance (i)
character

In a heterozygous organism
(b) Codominance (ii) only one allele expresses
itself

In a heterozygous organism
(c) Pleiotropy (iii) both alleles express
themselves fully

Polygenic A single allele regulate

(d) (iv)
inheritance character in 2n organism

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

19) Select out the incorrect conclusion :-

(1) All the statements of column A are true for chromosome

(2) All the statements of column B are always true for chromosome
(3) All these statements of column A are always true for Gene
(4) All the statements of column B are always true for Gene

20) In cross between yellow round (YYRR) seeded plant with pure breeding pea plants having green
wrinkled (yyrr) seed then find out the total seeds (plants) having yellow colour in F2-generation :-

(1) 12/16
(2) 10/16
(3) 14/16
(4) 11/16

21) Match the column I and II.

Column I Column II

(A) Test cross (i) [Link]

(B) Dihybrid cross (ii) 3:1

Polygeneic
(C) (iii) 1:1
inheritance

Monohybrid
(D) (iv) [Link]
cross
(1) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv
(2) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii
(3) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii
(4) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii

22) Which one of the following is an incorrect statement regarding mutations?

(1) Deletion and insertion of base pairs cause frameshift mutations.

(2) Cancer cells commonly show chromosomal aberrations.
(3) UV and gamma rays are mutagens.
(4) Change in a single base pair of DNA does not cause mutation.
23) Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Sickle cell anaemia and Haemophilia are autosomal dominant traits.
Statement II : Sickle cell anaemia and Haemophilia are disorders of the blood.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement-II are correct

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

24) Mendel proposed that something was beings stably passed down, unchanged, from parent to
offsprings through gametes, over successive generation. He called these things as

(1) Factors
(2) Genomes
(3) Genes
(4) Alleles

25) Which one of the following character chosen by Mendel can express in both homozygous as well
as in heterozygous condition ?

(1) Axial flower position

(2) Constricted pod shape
(3) Wrinkled seed shape
(4) Green seed colour

26) A dominant trait is the one which is expressed in :-

(1) Homozygous condition only

(2) Heterozygous condition only
(3) Either homozygous or in heterozygous condition
(4) Both in homozygous and heterozygous condition

27) In human blue eyes is recessive to brown eye if a boy has brown eyes and his mother and sister
has blue eyes then what will be genotype and phenotype of his father :-

(1) genotype – Bb phenotype – Brown eyes

(2) genotype – BB phenotype – Brown eyes
(3) genotype – bb phenotype – blue eyes
(4) Both 2 and 3

28) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: In 1900, three Scientists (de Vries, Correns and von Tschermak) independently
rediscovered Mendel’s results on the inheritance of characters.
Statement II: By 1902, the chromosome theory of inheritance was rejected because the movement of
chromosomes during meiosis could not be observed. In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

29) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Mendel's experiments with garden pea plants involved true-breeding lines that show
stable trait inheritance and expression for several generations after continuous self-pollination.
Statement II: Mendel selected 7 true-breeding pea plant varieties for his experiments on inheritance,
each variety having one character with contrasting traits. In the light of the above statements,
choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

30) Mendel published his work in 1865 but it remained unrecognised till 1900. Which of the
following reason was not responsible for it

(1) Communication was not easy?

His concept of genes (factors) as stable and discrete unit was not accepted by his
(2)
contemporaries as an explanation for apparently continuous variations
(3) Use of mathematics to explain biological phenomenon
(4) Use of emasculation technique

31) In the theoritical explanation of allelic interaction for dominant and recessive forms, the
recessive trait is seen due to production of

(1) Normal enzyme

(2) A non functional enzyme
(3) No enzyme production
(4) Either 2 or 3

32) Assertion A: 'When F1 plants of genotype Tt are self-pollinated, the resulting offspring have a
[Link] genotypic ratio of TT, Tt, and tt.
Reason R: 'During self-pollination of Tt plants, gametes of genotypes T and t combine randomly,
leading to a [Link] ratio in the offspring

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

33) Assertion (A): Gynacomastia is observed in Turner's syndrome.

Reason (R): Such a disorder is caused due to the presence of extra copy of X-chromosome.
(1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is the correct explanation of the (A)
(2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is not the correct explanation of the (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false

34) Find out incorrect option for F2 generation in the diagram given below :-

(1) 25% plants are hybrid for both characters

(2) 50% plants are similar to parents.
(3) 50% plants are pure for one and hybrid for other character.
(4) 25% plants are pure for both characters.

35) Which is not correct ?

(1) dominance is not an autonomous feature of a gene or the product that it has information for
The Law Independent Assortment states that "When two pairs of traits are combined in a
(2)
hybrid, segregation of one pair of characters is independent of the other pair of characters".
(3) Starch synthesis in pea seeds is controlled by one gene
ABO blood group is an example of
(4)
incomplete dominance

36) The Punnett square shown below gives a pattern of inheritance in dihybrid cross where yellow
(Y) is dominant over green (y) seeds and round (R) is dominant over wrinkled (r) seeds.
 The plant of type 'X' will produce seeds with the genotype identical to seeds
produced by the plants of the type :

(1) C
(2) N
(3) B
(4) K

37) Read the following statements and find out incorrect one :- (I) Flower colour in
Mirabilis jalapa shows complete dominance.
(II) Coat colour in cattles shows codominance. (III) Starch grain size in garden pea shows
incomplete dominance. (IV) Wrinkled seed shape in garden pea is recessive.

(1) Only I
(2) Only II
(3) Only III
(4) I and IV both

38) When a cross is made between pink flowered and red flowered snapdragon plants then
proportion of phenotype in offspring would be :-

(1) Pink (50%) : Red (50%)

(2) Pink (50%) : Red (0%)
(3) Red (50%) : White (50%)
(4) Pink (50%) : White (50%)

39) Assertion (A) :- Incomplete dominance made it possible to distinguish heterozygous from
homozygous.
Reason (R) :- In incomplete dominance F1 had a phenotype that did not resemble either of the two
parents and was in between the two.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is a correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but reason is true.

40) In snapdragons tall is dominant over dwarf and red colour of the flower is incompletely dominant
over the white and hybrid is pink. A pure tall white (TTrr) is crossed to a pure dwarf red (ttRR) and
the plants of F1, generation are self fertilised. What will be the expected phenotype ratio of the F2
plants ?

(1) [Link]
(2) [Link]
(3) [Link]
(4) [Link]

41) ABO blood groups are controlled by the gene I. The gene I has three alleles IA, IB & i. Choose the
incorrect statement :-

(1) The alleles IA & IB produces a slightly different form of antigen

(2) The allele i does not form any antigen
(3) IA & IB are completely dominant over i allele
(4) IA & IB regulate same character with same manifestations

42) See this micrograph of the red blood cells and the amino acid composition of the relevant portion
of β-chain of haemoglobin. Find out A, B, C, D represents which option :-

(1) GAG, GUG, Glu, Val

(2) GUG, GAG, Val, Glu
(3) CTC, CAC, Glu, Val
(4) CAC, CTC, Glu, Val

43) Which of the following statement is correct about polygenic inheritance ?

(1) In polygenic inheritance, one gene regulates the expression of many characters.
(2) Characters which are regulated by polygenes are qualitative characters.
Besides the involvement of multiple genes, polygenic inheritance also takes into account the
(3)
influence of environment.
(4) Human skin colour is an example of qualitative character.

44) Read the following statements and choose the correct set of statements:
(a) multiple alleles can be found only when population studies are made
(b) dominance is an autonomous feature of a gene
(c) Punnett square is used to calculate the probability of all possible genotypes of offspring in a
genetic cross
(d) Mendel applied statistical analysis and mathematical logic to solve problems in biology
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:-

(1) (a),(c) and (d) only

(2) (c) and (d) only
(3) (a),(b),(c) and (d) only
(4) (a),and (b) only

45) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: In α Thalassemia, production of α globin chain is affected due to mutation or deletion of
one or more of the four genes controlled by two closely linked genes HBA1 and HBA2 on
chromosome 16.
Statement II: Thalassemia is a qualitative problem of synthesising an incorrectly functioning globin,
similar to sickle-cell anaemia. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from
the options given below:

(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

46) The first living being were :-

(1) Anaerobic, Chemoautotrophs

(2) Aerobic, Chemoheterotrophs
(3) Anaerobic, Chemoheterotrophs
(4) Aerobic, Chemoautotrophs

47) Life cannot originate from inorganic materials now because of

(1) Low atmospheric temperature

(2) High degree of pollution
(3) High atmospheric oxygen
(4) Absence of raw materials

48) In following line diagram A,B,C show which type of evolution

(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)

49) Match Column - I with Column - II -

Column - I Column - II

(A) Universe (P) 2 bya

(B) Life (Q) 4 bya

(C) Cellular Form (R) 20 bya

(D) Non celllular form (S) 3 bya

(1) A - P; B - Q; C - R: D - S
(2) A - R; B - Q; C - P: D - S
(3) A - S; B - R; C - Q: D - P
(4) A - Q; B - S; C - R: D - P

50) Which of the following pair is incorrect ?

(1) Theory of special creation Diversity was same and will be same in future
New life can be originated on earth by decaying and
(2) Theory of Biogenesis
rotting matter
(3) Cosmic panspermia theory Life came from outer space through spores
First life have come from pre-existing non-living
(4) Oparin-Haldane theory
organic molecules
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

51) What is the sequence in the evolution of mammals?

(1) Fish → Amphibian → Reptiles → Mammals
(2) Fish → Reptiles → Birds → Mammals
(3) Fish → Amphibians → Reptiles → Aves → mammals
(4) Fish → Amphibians → Aves → mammals

52) Identify the correct match from column I, II and III.

Column I Column II Column III

Mouth
Connecting
(1) parts of (a) (i) Vestigeal
link
insects

Eye of
Retrogressive
(2) octopus (b) Splint bone (ii)
evolution
and man

2nd and 4th

Homologous Convergent
(3) toes in (c) (iii)
organs evolution
horse

Analogous Divergant
(4) Virus (d) (iv)
organs evolution
(1) 2–a–iii, 1–c–iv, 3–b–i, 4–d–ii
(2) 1–c–iv, 2–d–iii, 3–b–i, 4–a–ii
(3) 1–d–iii, 2–b–iv, 3–b–i, 4–d–ii
(4) 2–a–iii, 1–c–iv, 3–a–ii, 4–d–iv

53) In following experiment of S.L. Miller A,B and C are simulation of :-

A B C

Primitive
(1) Raining Hot dilute soup
atmosphere

Hot dilute Primitive

(2) Raining
soup atmosphere

Primitive
(3) Raining Hot dilute soup
atmosphere
 Hot dilute Primitive
(4) Raining
soup atmosphere
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

54) During evolution the animal which evolved in to the first amphibian that lived on both land and
water were :-

(1) Sauropsids
(2) Ichthyosaurs
(3) Coelacanth
(4) Therapsids

55) Find the correct match from table :-

(1) only (i)

(2) (i) and (ii)
(3) (i) and (iv)
(4) (iii) and (iv)

56) Among the following sets of examples for convergent evolution,

Select the correct option.

(1) Heart of bat, man and cheetah

(2) Thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils of Cucurbita.
(3) Eyes of octopus and mammals
(4) Brain of bat, man and cheetah

57) Result of convergent evolution is :

(1) Same structures evolving for different functions.

(2) Different structured evolving for same function.
(3) Same structures evolving for same function.
(4) Different structures evolving for no function.

58) Identify the correct statements -

(A) By the time of 500 mya, vertebrates were formed and become active.
(B) Jawless fishes probably evolved around 350 mya.
(C) Sea weeds and few plants Existed probably around 320 mya.
(D) The first organism that invaded land were plants.
Select the correct set of statements :

(1) (A), (B) and (D) only

(2) (A), (C) and (D) only
(3) (B), (C) and (D) only
(4) All are correct

59)

Given below are two statements :

Statement-I : The geological history of earth closely correlated with the biological history of earth.
Statement-II : The study of fossil shows that life forms varied over time and certain life forms are
restricted to certain geological time spans.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Statement-I is true but Statement-II is false.

(2) Statement-I is false but Statement-II is true.
(3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false.

60) Which pair of mammals is not an example of convergent evolution?

(1) Mole - Marsupial mole

(2) Anteater - Numbat
(3) Lemur - Spotted cuscus
(4) Bobcat - Wolf

61) Identify the correct match from column I and column II:

(1) a → i;b → ii;c → iii;d → iv

(2) a → ii;b → iii;c → iv;d → i
(3) a → iii;b → i;c → iv;d → ii
(4) a → iv;b → ii;c → iii;d → i

62) Only two statements are correct among the given five statements. Identify them:
(A) Fitness is the end result of ability to adapt and get selected by nature.
(B) Members of a population don’t vary in characteristics.
(C) Mutation is a continuous source of variations.
(D) Evolution is a single step process called saltation.
(E) Evolution is not a directed process in the sense of determinism.

(1) A, E
(2) A, B
(3) C, D
(4) D, E

63) Given below are two statements :

Statement-I : Palaeontological evidence suggest that life forms have remained unchanged
throughout the history of earth.
Statement-II : Wings of butterfly and birds are anatomically and functionally similar.
In the light of above statements choose the correct answer from the options given below :-

(1) Only statement-I is correct

(2) Only statement-II is correct.
(3) Both statements are correct.
(4) Both statements are incorrect.

64) Evolution can be best explained by :

(1) Darwin’s concept of Descent with modification

(2) Miller’s experiment
(3) Louis Pasteur’s experiment
(4) Special creation theory

65) Select the correct sequence of evolution :-

(1) Sauropsid → thecodont → lizard

(2) Synapsid → pelycosaurs → bird
(3) Sauropsid → thecodont → crocodile
(4) Synapsid → thecodont → mammals

66) Darwinian variations are

(1) Small and directional

(2) Large & Non directional
(3) Single step & Non directional
(4) Large and discontinuous
67) DNA sequences in many human genes are very similar to the sequences of corresponding genes
in chimpanzees. The most likely explanation for this result is that:

(1) Humans and chimpanzees share a relatively recent common ancestor.

(2) Humans evolved from chimpanzees.
(3) Chimpanzees evolved from humans.
(4) Humans and chimpanzees are not closely related.

68) Identify the correct match from column I and column II:

(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv

(2) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
(3) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
(4) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii

69) Which statement is not true about Ramapithecus and Dryopithecus?

(1) They existed about 15 million years ago

(2) They were hairy and walked like gorilla and chimpanzee
(3) Ramapithecus was more man like
(4) Dryopithecus was more man like

70) According to Hugo DeVries what causes evolution?

(1) Small and continuous variations

(2) Small and discontinuous variations
(3) Large and discontinuous variations
(4) Large and continuous variations

71) Read four statements (a-d) carefully:

(a) Natural resources are unlimited.
(b) Populations are stable in size except for seasonal fluctuations.
(c) Members of a population vary in characteristics.
(d) There is no competition for resources among the individuals of a population.
How many statements are correct among these?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four
72) Which type of natural selection is shown in given graphical representation?

(1) Stabilizing selection

(2) Directional selection
(3) Disruptive selection
(4) Artificial selection

73) Who is the direct ancestor of modern man?

(1) Cro-Magnon man

(2) Java man
(3) Peking man
(4) Neanderthal man

74)

Ecological niche of an organism is:-

(1) It's capacity to reproduce maximum

(2) It's functional position in an ecosystem
(3) Physical area covered by the organism
(4) Capacity to perform camouflage

75)
Above given diagram represents a relation with environment this relation is known as :-

(1) Autecology
(2) Population ecology
(3) Species ecology
(4) Synecology

76) Identify the correct match from the column I, II and III.
(1) 1 - d - iv, 2 - c - i, 3 - a - ii, 4 - b - iii
(2) 1 - c - iv, 2 - d - i, 3 - a - ii, 4 - b - iii
(3) 1 - c - iv, 2 - d - iii, 3 - a - ii, 4 - b - i
(4) 1 - d - iv, 2 - c - i, 3 - b - ii, 4 - a - iii

77) Assertion :- Competition always occurs between closely related species compete for same
resources that are limiting.
Reason :- Totally unrelated species could not compete for same resources.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion and Reason both are false.

78) Assertion :- Removal of key stone species from any ecosystem may leads to destruction of entire
ecosystem.
Reason :- Keystone species drive major ecosystem functions.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

79) Basic unit of ecological hierarchy :-

(1) Population
(2) Ecosphere
(3) Organism
(4) Community

80) Extinction of Abingdon tortoise at the invasion of Goat on galapagos island is the example of :-

(1) Predation
(2) Competition
(3) Parasitism
(4) Commensalism

81) Ecotone is:-

(1) Interaction between two populations

(2) Development of Ecads
(3) Transition zone between two communities
(4) Study of Ecosystem

82)

Which one is not an example of mutualism :

(1) Epiphytes
(2) Mycorrhiza
(3) Fig tree and wasp
(4) Lichen

83) The pyramids a, b and c represent.

(1) a = expanding population, b = declining population, c = stable population

(2) a = declining population, b = expanding population, c = stable population
(3) a = stable population, b = declining population, c = expanding population
(4) a = expanding population, b = stable population, c = declining population

84) In the above diagram which type of growth have been demonstrated by curve a and curve b

respectively :
(1) a - Logistic growth, b - Exponential growth
(2) a - Logistic growth, b - Relative growth
(3) a - Exponential growth, b - Logistic growth
(4) a - Exponential growth, b - Negative growth

85) If in a pond there are 40 Lotus plants last year and through reproduction 16 new plants are
added, taking the current population 56, the birth rate will be :-

(1) 5.6
(2) 0.4
(3) 0.5
(4) 1.6

86) Which of the following produce a large number of small sized off spring ?

(1) Oysters
(2) Birds
(3) Mammals
(4) Oysters and pelagic fishes

87) Which of the following equation is correctly describe Verhulst-pearl Logistic growth ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

88) Given below are two statements -

Statement-I : A population growing in a habitat with limited resources show initially a log phase.
Statement-II : Unlimited resources leads to competition between individuals.
Choose most appropriate answer from given below option ?

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct

89) Assertion (A) :- In nature, we rarely find isolated, single individuals of any species; majority of
them live in groups in a well defined geographical area, share or compete for similar resources,
potentially interbreed and thus constitute a population.
Reason (R) :- Although an individual organism is the one that has to cope with a changed
environment, it is at the population level that natural selection operates to evolve the desired traits.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct

90) Out of the four basic processes given below. Which contribute to an increase in population
density of an area :
A. Immigration
B. Emigration
C. Natality
D. Mortality
Choose the correct option :

(1) A and D
(2) A and C
(3) C and D
(4) C and B
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 4 1 4 4 4 4 2 3 1 4 3 3 2 4 3 1 4 4 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 4 3 4 1 1 2 1 1 3 2 1 4 3 2 1 1 1 4 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 4 1 1 3 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 3 2 4 4 1 2 4 2 1 1 1 4 2 2 4 1 4 2 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 2 3 4 2 4 4 3 2 3 4 2 2 3 1 4 1 3 2 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 2 2 4 3

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 3 2 4 3 4 2 1 1 2 4 3 3 1 2 1 2 2 4 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 4 4 1 1 4 1 4 4 4 4 1 4 2 4 1 1 1 1 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 1 3 1 4 3 3 3 2 2 1 2 3 3 3 3 2 3 3 4
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 1 4 1 3 1 1 4 4 3 2 3 1 2 4 2 4 1 3 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 1 4 3 2 4 4 1 1 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

2)

⇒ v2 = 2v1

% change =
= 100%

3) COME : K1 + U1 = K2 + U2

0 + mg (4R) = mv2 + mg (2R) ⇒ mv2 = 4mgR

Forces at position 2 :

N= –mg = 4mg – mg = 3 mg

4) Let ω is the angular speed of revolution.

T3 = m ω3(3l)
T2 – T3 = m ω3 2l ⇒ T2 = mω2 (5l)
T1 – T2 = m ω2l ⇒ T1 = mω2 (6l)
T3 : T2 : T1 = 3 : 5 : 6

5) and
By COME between A and B
∴

6) Velocity at the bottom =

For completing the loop

∴ R=

7)

The coin will have no motion relative to the gramophone record when inertial force mRω2 is
less than or equal to the static frictional force μmg.
∴ mRω2 ≤ μmg

or R ≤

8)

⇒
(μs = tanϕ)
OR
Check by dimensions.

9)

Explain : The angular velocity of a particle is given as a function of the angle rotated. find the
angular acceleration at a specific angle.

Concept : Angular acceleration is the derivative of angular velocity with respect to time. We
can use the chain rule to relate it to the derivative with respect to the angle.

Formula : Angular acceleration: α = ω ​

Calculation : ω = θ2 + 2θ
Angular acceleration: α = ω = (θ2 + 2θ ) ( 2 θ +2 )
Angular acceleration at θ = 1 rad

α = (12 + 2.1) (2 .1 + 2) = 12 rad/s2

Ans (3)

10)
N sin = mg
N cos θ = mw2r

= 5.7 rad/sec

11)

here h = ℓ – ℓ cos 60° =

COME
k1 + u1 = k2 + u2

u2 = v2 + gl

= 2 m/s
12)

Question Asking About: Concept and problems Approach

The ratio of angles rotated in consecutive time intervals under uniform angular acceleration.

Key Concept:
For constant angular acceleration α, the angular displacement in time t is given by

Since the wheel starts from rest (ω0 = 0), the equation simplifies to:

Formula:
for the fist 2 sec.

For the next 2 sec (total time = 4 sec):

Thus,

Ratio:

Conclusion:
Hence, option (3) is correct.

13)

14)

15)

At
⇒
Now

16)

17)

18) Given v = 20m/s

R = 100m

19) Kinetic energy =

or, mv2 = 2as2

Centripetal force

20) For looping the loop minimum velocity at top point v =

time taken by particle

∴ horizontal range x = vt = = 2L

21)

ωPQ = 0.7 rad/s

22)

23)

By Newton laws
mg – N =

mg – =N where m1g1v = const.

R A < RB

NA < NB

24)

25) ANS. 3:1

26) 20 J

27) ANS.

28) Power delivered by gravity is zero at all the point on the trajectory

29) 240 J

30) 17.5 J
 31) x = 1.5 m

32) Ans.

33) Ans.

34) Ans. 10 m/s

35) mgl (1 – cos )

36) and

37) Ans.

38) 20 m/s

39) Ans.

40) Ans. B

41) 60 J

42) Ans. 3 unit

43) Ans.

44) 44%

45) Ans.

CHEMISTRY
46)

K P = KC

47)

Ans.

48)

High temperature and low pressure

49)

No change in the equilibrium

50)

7.5 × 10-2

51) N2O4(g) ⇌ 2NO2(g)

1–x 2x
Total moles at equilibrium = 1 + x = 1.2 moles
Pressure = 1.2 atm

52)

Ans.

53)

105

54)

Ans 50
55)

a>b+c

56)

H2(g) + I2(g) 2HI(g)

57)

High temperature and high pressure

58)

N2O4 2NO2
1 2
1–α 2α
Total moles = 1 + α

59) For the reaction having Δng = 0, change in volume of system at equilibrium does not alter
number of moles of reactants and products but concentration changes.

60) NCERT, Pg. # 202

61)

Ans. +1

62)

D>C>B>A

63)

1 × 10–12

64)

Only ions

65)

Both Assertion & Reason are correct and Reason is correct explanation for Assertion.

66) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

67) pH of 9 means the salt solution should be basic.

68)

NH4Cl

69)

Na2HPO4

70)

Ans. 7.0

71)

Ans.

72)

1-phenylpropene

73)

(C)

74) The difference isomers of a compound with molecular formula C4H10O are
75)

Ans.

76)

Ans Option (A), (D)

Concept :- Conditions for G-I
Condition no 1:- Restricted rotation must be present.
Condition no 2 :- The two groups at each end of restricted bond must be different.
Condition no 3 :- Terminal valency present in the same plane. G.I is also observed in case of
substituted cycloalkanes
Option (A) Correct bcz

Terminal valency around restricted rotation is same Hence it doesn't show G.I.
option (B) Incorrect ; bcz

it will show G.I acc. to substituted cycloalkane

Option (C) Incorrect ; bcz it show G.I acc. to condition no 2
Option (D) Correct bcz it doesn't show G.I

77) are chain isomers

78) Given compound is chiral, so it can show optical isomerism.

79)

OCH3 > OH > COOH > CHO

80)

Ans. 2

81)

82)

Explaining :
Concept : This question is based on
Solution :
There are three stereo – centers (n = 3)
So, no. of stereoisomer = 2n = 23 = 8
Final Answer : (1)

83)

84)
All four ortho positions are occupied by bulky groups, so rings become ⟂ to each other to
minimize repulsion.
So, this compound is optically active.

85)
 86)

87)

Ans.

88)

89)

Both (2) and (3)

90)

(P) → Optically inactive but no chiral carbon.

(Q) → No POS, No COS, so optically active.
(R) → Having disimilar chiral C and have POS.

BIOLOGY

91) The assertion is true as pedigree analysis is a tool used to determine whether a trait is
dominant or recessive. The reason is also true; haemophilia is an X-linked recessive disorder
that can be transmitted from a carrier female to her male progeny. However, the reason R
does not explain the assertion A directly; it is merely an example of how an X-linked recessive
trait is inherited, not an explanation of how pedigree analysis works to determine dominance
or recessiveness of a trait.
 92) 4.8.2 Mendelian Disorders

93)

NCERT XII Pg. # 89

If normal is aa then affected will be Aa.

94)

The Correct answer is: 4. A-Emasculation, B-Artifical cross pollination, C-Hybrid offsprings.

95)

Ncert based

96) NCERT 12th based

97) NCERT 12th based

98)

The correct answer is 1: Phenylketonuria

Explanation: The figure A likely shows a genetic disorder related to a defect in the
metabolism of phenylalanine, which is characteristic of Phenylketonuria (PKU). PKU is a
genetic disorder where the body cannot break down phenylalanine, leading to its accumulation
and causing brain damage if untreated.

99)

The correct answer is 1: 62.8%

Explanation: In Morgan's experiment with Drosophila, the eye color and wing size genes
were linked. The percentage of parental type in the F2 generation was found to be 62.8%. This
reflects the frequency of non-recombinant (parental) phenotypes.

100) NCERT : 89,90

101)

The correct answer is 4. B, A, C.

Explanation:

A. The map distance between A and B is 3 units.

 B. The map distance between B and C is 10 units.

C. The map distance between A and C is 7 units.

Since the distance between A and B is the smallest (3 units), B is likely in the middle. The
distance between B and C is 10 units, which is the largest, so C is placed farther away from B
than A. Therefore, the correct order of genes is B, A, C.

102)

The correct answer is 3. 11.2 cM.

Explanation: The cross between the homozygous ab individual and the wild type produces F1
hybrids with a test [Link] progeny distribution shows recombinant and non-recombinant types.

A. Parental/Non-recombinant types: ++/ab and ab/ab (896 + 880 = 1776)

B. Recombinant types: +a/ab and +b/ab (108 + 116 = 224)

To calculate the distance between genes a and b:

A. Recombination frequency (RF) = (Recombinant offspring / Total offspring) × 100

B. RF = (224 / 2000) × 100 = 11.2%

Thus, the map distance between genes a and b is 11.2 cM.

103)

The correct answer is 3. Male and female flies are easily distinguishable.
Drosophila melanogaster (fruit flies) are commonly used in genetic studies because their male
and female individuals are easily distinguishable, which helps in studying inheritance patterns.
Additionally, they have a short life cycle, produce a large number of progeny, and are easy to
maintain in the lab, making them ideal for research in genetics.

104) Answer (1)

105) The assertion is true as genes on the same chromosome can show varying degrees of
recombination, with some being tightly linked and others loosely linked. The reason is also
true and is the correct explanation for the assertion because the frequency of recombination is
indeed used to determine the relative distances between genes, which helps in creating
genetic maps, as was done by Alfred Sturtevant, a student of Morgan.

106)

The correct answer is 1. ++35% : ab 35% : +a 15% : +b 15%.

 Explanation:
1. Given information:

A. Two genes (a and b) are linked and show 30% recombination.

B. Recombination frequency (rrr) represents the percentage of recombinant gametes. In this
case, r=30% ,so non-recombinant gametes will make up 100%-30%=70%

2. F1 genotype:
The F1 individual is ++/ab.
3. Gamete types produced by F1:

A. Non-recombinant gametes (70%): These gametes retain the parental combinations:

A. + + = 35%
B. ab = 35%
B. Recombinant gametes (30%): These gametes result from crossing over:
A. +a = 15%
B. + b = 15%

Proportions of gametes:

A. ++ = 35% (non-recombinant gametes)

B. ab = 35% (non-recombinant gametes)
C. +a = 15% (recombinant gametes)
D. +b = 15% (recombinant gametes)

107)

NCERT XII Pg. # 83

108)

The correct answer is: (2) (a)-(ii) ,(b)-(iii) ,(c)-(iv) , (d)-(i)

Explanation :
(a) Dominance: One allele hides the other in heterozygotes. (ii)

(b) Codominance: Both alleles are fully expressed in heterozygotes. (iii)

(c) Pleiotropy: One gene affects many traits. (iv)

(d) Polygenic inheritance: Many genes affect one trait. (i)

109)

NCERT XII, Pg. # 82, Table 5.3

110)

NCERT Pg. # 63
 111) NCERT Pg. # 90

112) Change in single base pair of DNA is also a type of mutations called point mutations. It is
a type of mutation that causes the replacement of a single base nucleotide with another
nucleotide of the genetic material, DNA or RNA. For example, a point mutation is the cause of
sickle cell disease.

113)

NCERT Page no. 74 para. 3 line no. 1

114)

The correct answer is 1. Factors

Explanation: Mendel referred to the hereditary units that were passed from parent to
offspring as "factors". These factors are now known as genes. Mendel's experiments with pea
plants led him to propose that these "factors" determine traits, and they are inherited in
specific patterns.

However, it's important to note that today we refer to these "factors" as genes, but at the time
of Mendel, the term "factors" was used.

So, the correct historical term is factors.

115) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 54

116) Solution:
The correct answer is :
(4) Both in homozygous and heterozygous condition.
A dominant trait is expressed in both homozygous (e.g., AA) and heterozygous (e.g., Aa)
conditions, as long as there is at least one dominant allele present.

117)

The correct answer is 1. Genotype – Bb, Phenotype – Brown eyes.

Explanation: Since blue eyes (bb) are recessive, the boy's mother must be genotype bb. The
boy has brown eyes, which means he has at least one B allele. His sister, who has blue eyes,
must also have the bb genotype. Therefore, the father must carry a B allele and a b allele
(genotype Bb), giving him brown eyes (phenotype).

118) Statement I: Correct. In 1900, de Vries, Correns, and von Tschermak did independently
rediscover Mendel's work on the inheritance of characters, which laid the foundation for the
field of genetics.
Statement II: Incorrect. The chromosome theory of inheritance was not rejected; in fact, by
1902, the movement of chromosomes during meiosis had been worked out, supporting the
theory that genes are located on chromosomes.
 119) Statement I: Correct. Mendel's experiments indeed involved true-breeding lines that
showed stable trait inheritance and expression for several generations after continuous self-
pollination.
Statement II: Incorrect. Mendel selected 14 true-breeding pea plant varieties, not 7, for his
experiments on inheritance, with each pair differing in one character with contrasting traits.

120) The correct answer is:

4. Use of emasculation technique
Explanation:
Mendel's work remained largely unrecognized for several decades after he published it in
1865 due to several factors:
1. Communication was not easy (Option 1 ): In the 19th century, the dissemination of scientific
ideas was slower, and Mendel's work was not widely known or circulated outside his
immediate academic circle.
2. His concept of genes (factors) as stable and discrete units (Option 2): Mendel's ideas about
inheritance were far ahead of his time, and the concept of discrete genes wasn't widely
accepted by his contemporaries, especially since many observed traits appeared to be
continuously variable.
3. Use of mathematics to explain biological phenomena (Option 3): Mendel used a statistical
and mathematical approach (probability theory) to explain inheritance,
Therefore, both the production of a non-functional enzyme or the absence of enzyme
production can result in the expression of the recessive trait, which makes Option 4 the
correct answer.

121)

In the case of a recessive trait, the trait is expressed when an individual has two recessive
alleles (homozygous recessive). This occurs because:

A. Non-functional enzyme: The recessive allele may code for a defective or non-functional
enzyme, which leads to the expression of the recessive trait.
B. No enzyme production : The recessive allele may result in the complete absence of an
enzyme, causing the recessive trait to be expressed when two such alleles are inherited.

In both cases (non-functional enzyme or no enzyme production), the recessive trait is visible when
the dominant allele is absent. Thus, either option 2 or 3 can explain the expression of a recessive
trait.

122) The assertion is true as the self-pollination of Tt plants produces TT, Tt, and tt offspring
in a [Link] genotypic ratio. This is because each Tt plant produces two types of gametes, T and
t, in equal proportions. When these gametes combine during fertilization, they form TT, Tt, and
tt genotypes in a [Link] ratio, which is a classic Mendelian inheritance pattern. Therefore, both
A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

123)

NCERT page no. 76. last para 4

124) NCERT Pg. # 79

125) ABO blood group is an example of co-dominance

126) NCERT XII, Pg # 79

127)

NCERT (XII) Pg # 55, 60, 62

128) NCERT Pg.# 60

129)

In incomplete dominance, the heterozygous phenotype is a blend of the two parental

phenotypes and is distinct from both, which helps in differentiating heterozygous individuals
from homozygous individuals.

130) Based on Concept Given in the NCERT : The ratio of [Link] of Dihybrid cross can be
derived as a combination series of 3 yellow: 1 green, with 3 round : 1 wrinkled. This derivation
can be written as follows: (3 Round : 1 Wrinkled) (3 Yellow : 1 Green) = 9 Round, Yellow : 3
Wrinkled, Yellow: 3 Round, Green : 1 Wrinkled, Green

131) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 77

132) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 89

133)

NCERT XII, Pg # 85

134) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 54, 57

135) Statement I: Correct. In α Thalassemia, the production of α globin chain is indeed

affected due to mutation or deletion of one or more of the four genes controlled by two closely
linked genes HBA1 and HBA2 on chromosome 16.
Statement II: Incorrect. Thalassemia is a quantitative problem where there is a deficiency in
the production of globin molecules, whereas sickle-cell anaemia is a qualitative problem where
the produced globin is malfunctioning.

136)

Anaerobic, Chemoheterotrophs

137)
High atmospheric oxygen

138)

Ans. (3)

139) A - R; B - Q; C - P: D - S

140) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 127, 128

141)

Fish → Amphibian → Reptiles → Mammals

142)

1–c–iv, 2–d–iii, 3–b–i, 4–a–ii

143) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 128

144)

Coelacanth

145)

(i) and (iv)

146) NCERT Pg. # 114, 115

147) NCERT XII Pg # 115

148) NCERT Pg. # 122

149) NCERT Pg. # 113

150)

Bobcat - Wolf

151)
 a → iii, b → i, c → iv, d → ii

152)

A, E

153) NCERT Pg. # 113

154) The correct answer is 1. Darwin's concept of Descent with modification.

A. Descent with modification is the core idea of Darwin's theory of evolution. It states that all
living organisms share common ancestors and that species gradually change over time
through a process of descent with modifications. This means that new species arise from
existing ones through a series of gradual changes driven by natural selection.

155)

Sauropsid → thecodont → crocodile

156) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 135

157)

Humans and chimpanzees share a relatively recent common ancestor.

158)

a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii

159)

Dryopithecus was more man like

160)

Large and discontinuous variations

161)

Two

162)

Disruptive selection
163)

Cro-Magnon man

164)

It's functional position in an ecosystem

165)

Synecology

166)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks us to correctly match three columns related to
ecological relationships: Column-I lists types of biological interactions, Column-II shows the
sign of interaction effects on the species involved, and Column-III provides examples of these
interactions. We need to find which types correspond to which effects and examples.

Underlying Concept: This problem involves ecological relationships between species,

specifically Mutualism, Competition, Predation, and Commensalism. Each relationship differs
in how the species benefit or harm each other, represented by signs: positive (+), negative (-),
or neutral (0). Examples are given to illustrate each type.

Tips and Tricks: Remember ecological interaction signs: Mutualism (+,+), Competition (-,-),
Predation (+,-), Commensalism (+,0). Use this to quickly link each interaction to its example.

Common Mistakes: Confusing the sign patterns, e.g., thinking Competition is (+,+) instead
of (-,-), or mixing up examples that visually seem similar but differ in interaction type.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Choosing an example with a mismatched sign confuses
the mutual benefit or harm in the relationship-for example, matching Cattle egret and cattle as
Predation (+,-) is wrong, since it is commensalism (+,0).

167) Explanation:

A. Assertion is false because competition is not always restricted to closely related species.
the example of flamingos and fishes competing for zooplankton in lakes. Here, flamingos
(birds) and fishes (aquatic vertebrates) are not closely related, yet they compete for the
same food resource (zooplankton).

B. The reason is also false because totally unrelated species can compete for the same
resources. The example is competition between visiting pollinators for nectar from
flowers, even if they belong to different taxonomic groups.
168)

Explaining the Question :- Assertion: Removal of keystone species from any ecosystem may
lead to the

destruction of the entire ecosystem.

Reason: Keystone species drive major ecosystems functions.

Concept:-

Solution :- • Keystone species are species that play a crucial role in maintaining the
structure and stability of an ecosystem.

• Their removal can cause drastic changes in the food web, leading to the collapse of the
entire ecosystem.

• Example: Starfish Pisaster (a keystone predator) helps maintain species diversity by preying
on dominant mussels. Its removal leads to overgrowth of mussels, reducing species diversity.

• Since keystone species regulate major ecosystem functions, their absence can disrupt the
entire ecosystem.
Final Answer :- 1. Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of
the Assertion.

169)

Organism

170)

Explaining the Question: This question asks about the type of ecological interaction
responsible for the extinction of the Abingdon tortoise due to goat invasion.

Concept: Competition.
Solution: Competition – Goats consumed vegetation that tortoises depended on. The
competition for food led to the extinction of the tortoise, making this a classic example of
interspecific competition.
Final Answer: Option 2 – Competition

171)

Explaining the Question: This question asks about the correct definition of Ecotone.

Concept: ecotone
Solution: Transition zone between two communities – This is the correct definition. Ecotones
contain organisms from both adjoining communities and often show higher species richness.
Final Answer: 3 – Transition zone between two communities

172)
Explanation: Mutualism is a type of interaction where both species benefit. Let's analyze the
options:

A. Epiphytes (Correct Answer) – Not mutualism, but commensalism.

• Epiphytes (e.g., orchids on trees) use the host plant for physical support but do not
take nutrients from it.
• The host tree is neither harmed nor benefited, making this commensalism, not
mutualism.

Final Answer : option (1) Epiphytes

173)

a = expanding population, b = stable population, c = declining population

174)

a - Exponential growth, b - Logistic growth

175)

Ans. 0.4

176) NCERT Pg. No. # 196

177) NCERT Pg. No. # 195

178) NCERT Pg. No. # 195

179) NCERT, Pg # 190-191

180)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 193